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Hi,
I'm currently reading "Supersymmetry demystifed" by Patrick Labelle, chapter 10, about SUSY non-Abelian gauge theories.
We have a Lagrangian with SU(N)-gauge fields, and gaugino's. What puzzles me are the following claims of Labelle about the representations. In the SUSY-transformation of the gauge fields A he remarks (and it doesn't seem to be a typo) "that the gauge fields A don't transform in the adjoint representation" (page 221).
Maybe my knowledge of gauge theories is a bit rusty, but gauge fields transform in de adjoint representation and SUSY doesn't change this fact, right? Is it some sort of convention? Maybe there are more people who read this part of Labelle's book and are puzzled?
I'm currently reading "Supersymmetry demystifed" by Patrick Labelle, chapter 10, about SUSY non-Abelian gauge theories.
We have a Lagrangian with SU(N)-gauge fields, and gaugino's. What puzzles me are the following claims of Labelle about the representations. In the SUSY-transformation of the gauge fields A he remarks (and it doesn't seem to be a typo) "that the gauge fields A don't transform in the adjoint representation" (page 221).
Maybe my knowledge of gauge theories is a bit rusty, but gauge fields transform in de adjoint representation and SUSY doesn't change this fact, right? Is it some sort of convention? Maybe there are more people who read this part of Labelle's book and are puzzled?