- #1
sessomw5098
- 8
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Suppose I get the eigenvalues of A, which are [tex]\lambda_{1},\lambda_{2},\dots \lambda_{n}[/tex]. Also, given any polynomial f(x), I get the eigenvalues of f(A). I'm trying to show that the eigenvalues of f(A) are [tex]f(\lambda_{1}),f(\lambda_{2}),\dots f(\lambda_{n})[/tex]. Is this possible? How would I go about showing this?