Splitting up an interval of integration

In summary, the following relation is proved:
  • #1
"Don't panic!"
601
8
How does one prove the following relation?

[tex]\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx= \int_{a}^{c}f(x)dx + \int_{c}^{b}f(x)dx [/tex]

Initially, I attempted to do this by writing the definite integral as the limit of a Riemann sum, i.e.

[tex] \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(b-a)}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x^{\ast}_{k})[/tex]

Where [itex] x^{\ast}_{k}\in\left[x_{k}, x_{k+1} \right] [/itex].

Then,

[tex] \int_{a}^{c}f(x)dx + \int_{c}^{b}f(x)dx= \\ = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(c-a)}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x^{\ast}_{k}) +\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(b-c)}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x^{\ast}_{k}) \\ = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(c-a)+ (b-c)}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x^{\ast}_{k}) \\ = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{(b-a)}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x^{\ast}_{k} = \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx[/tex]

But I have a feeling that this isn't correct?!
 
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  • #2
Your feeling is correct!
The two Riemann sums are not the same because they're taken in different intervals and so, in general, the terms aren't equal and so you can't factor them!
Consider two functions h(x) and k(x) defined as:
[itex]
h(x)=\left\{ \begin{array}{cc} f(x) \ \ \ \ x \in (a,c) \\ 0 \ \ \ \ otherwise \end{array} \right.
[/itex]
and
[itex]
k(x)=\left\{ \begin{array}{cc} f(x) \ \ \ \ x \in [c,b) \\ 0 \ \ \ \ otherwise \end{array} \right.
[/itex].
Its obvious that [itex] f(x)=h(x)+k(x) [/itex] when [itex] x \in (a,b) [/itex]. Use this for the proof!
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Ah, ok. thanks for your help.

Would this be correct then?

[tex] \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx = \int_{a}^{b}\left(h(x)+k(x)\right)dx = \\ = \int_{a}^{b}h(x)dx +\int_{a}^{b}k(x)dx = \int_{a}^{c}h(x)dx +\int_{c}^{b}k(x)dx = \int_{a}^{c}f(x)dx +\int_{c}^{b}f(x)dx [/tex]

As [itex] h(x)[/itex] is zero outside the interval [itex](a,c)[/itex] and so will provide no further contributions after this point in the integral, and similarly for [itex]k(x)[/itex].
 
  • #4
Yes, that's it!
 
Last edited:
  • #5
Ok, cool. Thanks very much for your help with this, much appreciated!
 

Related to Splitting up an interval of integration

1. What does it mean to split up an interval of integration?

Splitting up an interval of integration refers to dividing a given range of values into smaller sub-intervals in order to more accurately calculate the integral of a function over that range.

2. Why is it necessary to split up an interval of integration?

Splitting up an interval of integration is necessary when the function being integrated is not continuous over the entire range. In these cases, breaking the range into smaller sub-intervals allows for a more precise calculation of the integral.

3. How do you determine the number of sub-intervals to use when splitting up an interval of integration?

The number of sub-intervals to use when splitting up an interval of integration depends on the level of precision desired. Generally, more sub-intervals will result in a more accurate calculation, but may also require more computational resources.

4. Can you split up an interval of integration into unequal sub-intervals?

Yes, it is possible to split up an interval of integration into unequal sub-intervals. This may be necessary if the function being integrated is not evenly distributed over the range.

5. Are there any limitations or restrictions when splitting up an interval of integration?

There may be limitations or restrictions when splitting up an interval of integration, depending on the specific function being integrated. For example, some functions may have discontinuities or singularities that must be taken into consideration when dividing the interval.

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