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#### Petrus

##### Well-known member

- Feb 21, 2013

- 739

Show that f(x)g(x)->0 if f(x)->0 and g(x) is limited.

The proof for this one is in the calculus book which our school use but I use 3 diffrent calculus book and cant find it in any of them and can't find it in Google, If anyone got a Link for the proof I would be glad to read it

Regards,

\(\displaystyle |\pi\rangle\)