Dec 15, 2013 Thread starter #1 F Fermat Active member Nov 3, 2013 188 Am I right in thinking that if we have 3 sets A,B,C, then with A intersect B represented as AB, we have: A(B\C)=(AB)\C=B(A\C)?

Am I right in thinking that if we have 3 sets A,B,C, then with A intersect B represented as AB, we have: A(B\C)=(AB)\C=B(A\C)?

Dec 15, 2013 #2 mathbalarka Well-known member MHB Math Helper Mar 22, 2013 573 Yes. This follows from the definition of set minus.

Dec 15, 2013 #3 E Evgeny.Makarov Well-known member MHB Math Scholar Jan 30, 2012 2,492 All three sets equal $A\cap B\cap\bar{C}$ where $\bar{C}$ is the complement of $C$.