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#### mathworker

##### Active member

- May 31, 2013

- 118

Is it true that,

\(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}>\int_{1}^{\infty}\)\(\displaystyle \frac {1}{x}dx\)

explanation is appreciated

edit:sorry,lower limit in right hand side is changed from "0" to "1"

\(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}>\int_{1}^{\infty}\)\(\displaystyle \frac {1}{x}dx\)

explanation is appreciated

edit:sorry,lower limit in right hand side is changed from "0" to "1"

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