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- #1
mathworker
Well-known member
- May 31, 2013
- 119
Is it true that,
\(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}>\int_{1}^{\infty}\)\(\displaystyle \frac {1}{x}dx\)
explanation is appreciated
edit:sorry,lower limit in right hand side is changed from "0" to "1"
\(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}>\int_{1}^{\infty}\)\(\displaystyle \frac {1}{x}dx\)
explanation is appreciated
edit:sorry,lower limit in right hand side is changed from "0" to "1"
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