- #1
Xenosum
- 20
- 2
Homework Statement
Silly question, but I can't seem to figure out why, in e.g. Peskin and Schroeder or Ryder's QFT, the Fourier transform of the (quantized) real scalar field [itex] \phi(x) [/itex] is written as
[tex] \phi (x) = \int \frac{d^3k}{(2\pi)^3 2k_0} \left( a(k)e^{-ik \cdot x} + a^{\dagger}(k)e^{ik \cdot x} \right) .[/tex]
It's just weird because the Fourier transform usually only has one term, and one coefficient.
Thanks for any help.
Homework Equations
N/A
The Attempt at a Solution
[/B]
N/A