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Since between any two real numbers there is a rational, let \(p/q, \ p,q \in \mathbb{N}\) be such that:how to prove that for any real number in r (0,1) there exist a natural number n in N such that
rn > 1
I don't understand the question. What is "r (0,1)"? You want a number n such that m > 1? If you want a number > 1, why not take 2?how to prove that for any real number in r (0,1) there exist a natural number n in N such that
rn > 1
It should read:I don't understand the question. What is "r (0,1)"? You want a number n such that m > 1? If you want a number > 1, why not take 2?
What you have taken to be an "m" is in fact "r n" but with no space so that in the default font it looks like mProve that for any real number \(r \in (0,1)\) there exist a natural number \(n \in N\) such that \(r n > 1\)
Wow, talk about keming. It is true, I recently changed contact lenses and my vision went down a bit.What you have taken to be an "m" is in fact "r n" but with no space so that in the default font it looks like m