- #1
linuxux
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Hello, here is my problem:
how can i prove that if [tex]a\in\mathbf{Q}[/tex] and [tex]t\in\mathbf{I}[/tex], then [tex]a+t\in\mathbf{I}[/tex] and [tex]at\in\mathbf{I}[/tex]?
My original thought was to show that neither a+t or at can be belong to N, Z, or Q, thus they must belong to I. However I'm not certain if that train of thought is correct.
Also, i have a question that says given two irrational numbers s and t, what can be said about s+t and st.
My original thought he was that nothing can be shown, since it is possible to create numbers that belong to N, Z, Q, or I.
thanks for clarification.
how can i prove that if [tex]a\in\mathbf{Q}[/tex] and [tex]t\in\mathbf{I}[/tex], then [tex]a+t\in\mathbf{I}[/tex] and [tex]at\in\mathbf{I}[/tex]?
My original thought was to show that neither a+t or at can be belong to N, Z, or Q, thus they must belong to I. However I'm not certain if that train of thought is correct.
Also, i have a question that says given two irrational numbers s and t, what can be said about s+t and st.
My original thought he was that nothing can be shown, since it is possible to create numbers that belong to N, Z, Q, or I.
thanks for clarification.
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