- #1
lewis198
- 96
- 0
This is a bit embarrassing, but by convention does [itex]|0> = (1,0)^T[/itex] and
[itex]|1>=(0,1)^T[/itex], where we are in the basis of the eigenvectors of [itex]\sigma_{z}[/itex]?
[itex]|1>=(0,1)^T[/itex], where we are in the basis of the eigenvectors of [itex]\sigma_{z}[/itex]?