Prove f is a Bijection - Need Help

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In summary: This is quite easy for this particular problem.In summary, f is a bijection if f(f(x))=x, and this can be proven by showing both surjectivity and injectivity. The function \frac{x}{1-x} is bijective because it has an inverse and can be shown to be both surjective and injective. Additionally, the reals in the interval [0,1) can be put into a bijection with the rest of the real numbers using various functions such as tan or by "stretching" intervals.
  • #1
jmazurek
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Need help... If f(f(x))=x then prove f is a bijection.
 
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  • #2
Need help... If f(f(x))=x then prove f is a bijection.

Let's say that f maps some set S into itself. First prove surjectivity, so given any x in S show that there exists y such that f(y)=x, that's easy, y=f(x). So f is surjective. Next, prove injectivity:

let x not equal to y be elements of S. I'll use != for non-equality. So x!=y. but f(f(x))=x and f(f(y))=y so f(f(x))!=f(f(y)). which implies that f(x)!=f(y). Do you see why? if f(x)=f(y) then x and y are mapped to the same point but since f(f(x))!=f(f(y)) this means that this one point is mapped to two points in the image so f would not be a function at all.

Cheers,

Kevin
 
  • #3
A function is a bijection if and only if it has an inverse. f is equal to it's own inverse since f(f(x))=x, so f has an inverse and so it is bijective.
 
  • #4
This is a different question from the above, but since I don't feel like starting a new topic, I'll post it here:

I read somewhere that the reals in the interval [0,1] can be put into a bijection with the [tex]\Re \geq 0[/tex] . The bijective function in question is [tex]\frac{x}{1-x}[/tex]

How can it be proven that the function is bijective?

I (naively) thought of the following:

Suppose there exist a nonnegative real number r. Then
[tex]\frac{x}{1-x} = r[/tex] which can be expressed in terms of r to be
[tex]x = \frac{r}{1+r}[/tex]

Now it must be shown that [tex]0 \leq \frac{r}{1+r} \leq 1[/tex]

Suppose [tex]\frac{r}{1+r} < 0[/tex]Then [tex]r < 0[/tex] which contradicts the definition of r. Suppose [tex]\frac{r}{1+r} > 1[/tex], then [tex]r > 1+r[/tex], which means [tex]1 < 0[/tex], which is a contradiction. The function can be shown to be injective by noting that its derivative [tex]\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}[/tex] is always positive for all values of x and hence the function is strictly increasing and hence injective.

But the limitations of my informal "proof" are that it does not show that the function is surjective. How can this be shown? If there is anything with the "proof" above, please point it out; I haven't studied maths formally yet.
 
  • #5
you mean the interval [0,1) and you appear to have shown surjectivity, or you would if you phrased it as: let r be any real number, r=>0, then there is an x in [0,1) such that [tex]\frac{x}{1-x}=r[/tex]
 
  • #6
matt grime said:
you mean the interval [0,1) and you appear to have shown surjectivity, or you would if you phrased it as: let r be any real number, r=>0, then there is an x in [0,1) such that [tex]\frac{x}{1-x}=r[/tex]
Oh, sorry I meant [0,1). Is there something lacking in the proof? And also, can the reals in [0,1) be put into 1 to 1 correspondence with the rest of the Reals?
 
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  • #7
no, there is nothing lacking. you've shown it is a surjection, though you didn't realize, and yes, your proof it is injective is perfectly good.

the reals in any non-empty interval may be put in bijection with R, however the bijection has no need to be continuous, and in this case can't be, for high-faluting reasons that needn't worry us.

here are several tricks for doing this:

tan is a good function, it takes the interval (-pi/2,pi/2) bijectively to R

any two open intervals (a,b) (c,d) may be mapped bijectively between themselves simply by "stretching" (can't be bothered to type out the full function, but clearly if you have two intervals of the same length (b-a = d-c) then simply adding c-a to every number is a bijection between them, and (0,1) maps bijectively to (0,k) for all k by multiplication by k).

you can put the interval (0,1) in bijection with [0,1) too.

pick an infinite, increasing sequence in [0,1) starting with 0, say 0, 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5 etc, and define a map from [0,1) to (0,1) by x maps to x if x not in the sequence, and if x is in the sequence send it to the next element in the sequence.


EDIT: if you want to show there is a bijection between any two sets S and T it suffices to show there is an injection from S to T and an injection from T to S
 

Related to Prove f is a Bijection - Need Help

1. How do you prove that a function is a bijection?

To prove that a function f is a bijection, you need to show that it is both injective (one-to-one) and surjective (onto). This means that every element in the domain of f maps to a unique element in the range, and that every element in the range has at least one pre-image in the domain.

2. What is the significance of a bijection in mathematics?

A bijection is significant because it establishes a one-to-one correspondence between the domain and range of a function. This means that every element in the domain has a unique mapping to an element in the range, and vice versa. This property is useful in many areas of mathematics, including set theory, graph theory, and group theory.

3. Can a function be both injective and surjective but not be a bijection?

No, a function must be both injective and surjective to be considered a bijection. If a function is injective but not surjective, it is called a one-to-one function. If a function is surjective but not injective, it is called an onto function. Only when a function satisfies both properties is it considered a bijection.

4. What are some common methods for proving a function is a bijection?

There are several methods for proving that a function is a bijection. One common method is to use the definition of injectivity and surjectivity to show that the function satisfies both properties. Another method is to use a proof by contradiction, assuming that the function is not a bijection and then showing that this leads to a contradiction. Additionally, you can use the properties of inverse functions to prove that a function is a bijection.

5. Can a function be a bijection if its domain and range are infinite?

Yes, a function can be a bijection even if its domain and range are infinite. For example, the function f(x) = 2x is a bijection from the set of natural numbers to itself, even though both sets are infinite. This is because every natural number has a unique double, and every even natural number has a unique half.

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