- Thread starter
- #1

#### Petrus

##### Well-known member

- Feb 21, 2013

- 739

Hello MHB,

I am aware of there is two way, u can use chain rule or defination of derivate. I totaly understand the proof with this type Derivative of Inverse Function but is that a valid proof? How ever our teacher did proof this with derivate defination which I dont understand from my textbook. What is your thought? Any good link that explain this proof with derivate defination

I am aware that we use chain rule and im training for oral exam and I guess I will have to proof this chain rule in this one.

edit: why should \(\displaystyle f'(x) \neq 0\) should it be \(\displaystyle f'(y) \neq 0\)

Regards,

\(\displaystyle |\pi\rangle\)

I am aware of there is two way, u can use chain rule or defination of derivate. I totaly understand the proof with this type Derivative of Inverse Function but is that a valid proof? How ever our teacher did proof this with derivate defination which I dont understand from my textbook. What is your thought? Any good link that explain this proof with derivate defination

I am aware that we use chain rule and im training for oral exam and I guess I will have to proof this chain rule in this one.

edit: why should \(\displaystyle f'(x) \neq 0\) should it be \(\displaystyle f'(y) \neq 0\)

Regards,

\(\displaystyle |\pi\rangle\)

Last edited: