Problem of the Week #95 - January 20th, 2014

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  • Thread starter Chris L T521
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In summary, the individuals in the conversation are discussing the benefits of exercising regularly. They mention that exercise can improve physical and mental health, as well as increase energy levels and boost self-confidence. They also touch on the importance of finding a form of exercise that one enjoys in order to make it a sustainable habit. Additionally, they note that exercise can have a positive impact on overall well-being and quality of life.
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Chris L T521
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Thanks again to those who participated in last week's POTW! Here's this week's problem!

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Problem: Let $f(t)$ be a $\dfrac{2\pi}{k}$-periodic function, where
\[f(t)=\begin{cases}\sin(kt) & 0\leq t< \frac{\pi}{k}\\ 0 & \frac{\pi}{k}\leq t< \frac{2\pi}{k}\end{cases}\]
Find $\mathcal{L}\{f(t)\}$.

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  • #2
This week's problem was correctly answered by MarkFL. You can find his solution below.

[sp]We are given the function:

\(\displaystyle f(t)=\begin{cases}\sin(kt) & 0\leq t< \dfrac{\pi}{k}\\ 0 & \dfrac{\pi}{k}\leq t< \dfrac{2\pi}{k}\end{cases}\)

Which is \(\displaystyle p=\frac{2\pi}{k}\) periodic, and which we observe is continuous as well.

To find the Laplace transform, we begin with the definition:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}\equiv\int_0^{\infty} e^{-st}f(t)\,dt\)

Because $f(t)$ satisfies:

\(\displaystyle f(t)=f(t+p)\) for \(\displaystyle 0\le t\)

we may simplify our computations by partitioning the integral of the transform into integrals over subintervals of length $p$, and write:

\(\displaystyle ]\mathcal{L}\{f\}=\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\left(\int_{jp}^{(j+1)p} e^{-st}f(t)\,dt \right)\)

Consider the following substitution:

\(\displaystyle \tau=t-jp\)

Then we find:

\(\displaystyle e^{-st}=e^{-s(\tau+jp)}\)

and so using this and by the periodicity of $f$, we find:

\(\displaystyle \int_{jp}^{(j+1)p} e^{-st}f(t)\,dt=e^{-jps}\int_{0}^{p} e^{-s\tau}f(\tau)\,d\tau\)

Since the integral does not depend on $j$, we may now write:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}=\left(\int_{0}^{p} e^{-s\tau}f(\tau)\,d\tau \right)\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\left(e^{-jps} \right)\)

Now, if we observe that the sum is a geometric series, we may write:

\(\displaystyle \sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\left(e^{-jps} \right)=\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\left(\left(e^{-ps} \right)^j \right)=\frac{1}{1-e^{-ps}}\)

Now, for the integral, we may write (using the definition of $f$):

\(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{p} e^{-s\tau}f(\tau)\,d\tau=\int_{0}^{\frac{p}{2}} e^{-s\tau}\sin(k\tau)\,d\tau+\int_{\frac{p}{2}}^{p} e^{-s\tau}0\,d\tau=\int_{0}^{\frac{p}{2}} e^{-s\tau}\sin(k\tau)\,d\tau\)

At this point, we may develop a formula for:

\(\displaystyle I=\int_0^a e^{bx}\sin(cx)\,dx\)

Using integration by parts, we may use:

\(\displaystyle u=\sin(cx)\,\therefore\,du=c\cos(cx)\,dx\)

\(\displaystyle dv=e^{bx}\,dx\,\therefore\,v=\frac{1}{b}e^{bx}\)

Hence:

\(\displaystyle I=\left[\frac{1}{b}e^{bx}\sin(cx) \right]_0^a-\frac{c}{b}\int_0^a e^{bx}\cos(cx)\,dx\)

\(\displaystyle I=\frac{1}{b}e^{ab}\sin(ac)-\frac{c}{b}\int_0^a e^{bx}\cos(cx)\,dx\)

On the remaining integral, use integration by parts again where:

\(\displaystyle u=\cos(cx)\,\therefore\,du=-c\sin(cx)\,dx\)

\(\displaystyle dv=e^{bx}\,dx\,\therefore\,v=\frac{1}{b}e^{bx}\)

Hence:

\(\displaystyle I=\frac{1}{b}e^{ab}\sin(ac)-\frac{c}{b}\left(\left[\frac{1}{b}e^{bx}\cos(cx) \right]_0^a+\frac{c}{b}\int_0^a e^{bx}\sin(cx)\,dx \right)\)

\(\displaystyle I=\frac{1}{b}e^{ab}\sin(ac)-\frac{c}{b}\left(\frac{1}{b}e^{ab}\cos(ac)-\frac{1}{b}+\frac{c}{b}I \right)\)

\(\displaystyle I=\frac{1}{b}e^{ab}\sin(ac)-\frac{c}{b^2}e^{ab}\cos(ac)+\frac{c}{b^2}-\frac{c^2}{b^2}I\)

\(\displaystyle I\left(\frac{b^2+c^2}{b^2} \right)=\frac{\left(b\sin(ac)-c\cos(ac) \right)e^{ab}+c}{b^2}\)

\(\displaystyle I=\frac{\left(b\sin(ac)-c\cos(ac) \right)e^{ab}+c}{b^2+c^2}\)

Applying this formula, we may then write:

\(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{p}{2}} e^{-s\tau}\sin(k\tau)\,d\tau=\frac{\left(-s\sin\left(\dfrac{p}{2}k \right)-k\cos\left(\dfrac{p}{2}k \right) \right)e^{-\frac{p}{2}s}+k}{s^2+k^2}\)

And so we now have:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}=\frac{k-e^{-\frac{p}{2}s}\left(s\sin\left(\dfrac{p}{2}k \right)+k\cos\left(\dfrac{p}{2}k \right) \right)}{\left(s^2+k^2 \right)\left(1-e^{-ps} \right)}\)

Using \(\displaystyle p=\frac{2\pi}{k}\) we have:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}=\frac{k-e^{-\frac{\pi}{k}s}\left(s\sin\left(\pi \right)+k\cos\left(\pi \right) \right)}{\left(s^2+k^2 \right)\left(1-e^{-\frac{2\pi}{k}s} \right)}\)

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}=\frac{k\left(1+e^{-\frac{\pi}{k}s} \right)}{\left(s^2+k^2 \right)\left(1-e^{-\frac{2\pi}{k}s} \right)}\)

Factoring the second factor in the denominator as the difference of squares and then dividing out the resulting factor common to the numerator, we obtain:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{L}\{f\}=\frac{k}{\left(s^2+k^2 \right)\left(1-e^{-\frac{\pi}{k}s} \right)}\)[/sp]

Mark did a great job solving this problem from first principles. There is a formula, though, that allows you to compute $\mathcal{L}\{f(t)\}$ for $p$-periodic functions (which Mark, in essence, derived): If $f(t)$ is $p$-periodic and piecewise continuous for $t\geq 0$, then \[\mathcal{L}\{f(t)\} = \frac{1}{1-e^{-ps}}\int_0^p e^{-st}f(t)\,dt\tag{1}\]

Below, you'll find my solution using $(1)$.

[sp]Consider the $\dfrac{2\pi}{k}$-periodic function $f(t)$, where
\[f(t) = \begin{cases}\sin(kt) & 0\leq t\leq \pi/k\\ 0 & \pi/k \leq t < 2\pi/k\end{cases}\]
By formula $(1)$, we see that
\[\mathcal{L}\{f(t)\} = \frac{1}{1-e^{-2\pi s/k}}\int_0^{2\pi/k} e^{-st}f(t)\,dt = \frac{1}{1-e^{-2\pi s/k}}\int_0^{\pi/k}e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt.\]
To evaluate
\[\int_0^{\pi/k} e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt\]
we proceed using integration by parts twice: Let $u=e^{-st}\implies \,du=-se^{-st}\,dt$ and $\,dv=\sin(kt)\,dt \implies v= -\frac{1}{k}\cos (kt)$. Therefore,
\[\begin{aligned}\int_0^{\pi/k} e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt &= \left.\left[-\frac{e^{-st}}{k}\cos(kt)\right]\right|_0^{\pi/k} - \frac{s}{k}\int_0^{\pi/k}e^{-st}\cos(kt)\,dt\\ &= \frac{1+e^{-\pi s/k}}{k} -\frac{s}{k}\int_0^{\pi/k} e^{-st}\cos(kt)\,dt\end{aligned}\]
We apply parts again: $u=e^{-st}\implies \,du = -se^{-st}\,dt$ and $\,dv=\cos(kt) \implies v=\frac{1}{k}\sin(kt)$. Therefore,
\[\begin{aligned}\int_0^{\pi/k}e^{-st}\sin(kt) &= \frac{1+e^{-\pi s/k}}{k}-\frac{s}{k}\left(\left.\left[ \frac{e^{-st}}{k}\sin(kt)\right]\right|_0^{\pi/k} + \frac{s}{k}\int_0^{\pi/k} e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt\right)\\ &= \frac{1+e^{-\pi s/k}}{k}-\frac{s^2}{k^2} \int_0^{\pi/k} e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt\end{aligned}\]
Solving for the integral leaves us with
\[\left(1+\frac{s^2}{k^2}\right) \int_0^{\pi/k}e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt = \frac{1+e^{-\pi s/k}}{k} \implies \int_0^{\pi/k}e^{-st}\sin(kt)\,dt = \frac{k}{s^2+k^2}(1+e^{-\pi s/k})\]
Therefore
\[\begin{aligned}\mathcal{L}\{f(t)\} &= \frac{1}{1-e^{-2\pi s/k}}\cdot \frac{k}{s^2+k^2}(1+e^{-\pi s/k})\\ &= \frac{k(1+e^{-\pi s/k})}{(s^2+k^2)(1+e^{-\pi s/k}) (1-e^{-\pi s/k})}\\ &= \frac{k}{(s^2+k^2)(1-e^{-\pi s/k})}\end{aligned}\][/sp]
 

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