- Thread starter
- Moderator
- #1

- Jun 20, 2014

- 1,896

-----

Let $G$ be a group with finite index subgroups $H$ and $K$. Suppose $H$ and $K$ have relatively prime indices in $G$. Why must $G$ be the internal direct product of $H$ and $K$?

-----

Remember to read the POTW submission guidelines to find out how to submit your answers!