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- Mar 22, 2013
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Given that $k^2 + k + n$ is always prime for all positive integer $k$ in the interval $\left (0, (n/3)^{1/2} \right )$. Find the largest interval for which the same can be stated.
This easily follows from Heegner-Stark theorem, but can you show the same bypassing it, without going through the finititude of class-1 numbers?
This easily follows from Heegner-Stark theorem, but can you show the same bypassing it, without going through the finititude of class-1 numbers?