- #1
octopode
- 14
- 0
Hi,
A potential magnetic field has no curl. According to the "curl theorem" or stokes theorem, a vector field with no curl does not close. Yet, Maxwell's equation tell us we shall not have magnetic monopoles, so the loops have to close... ? What am I missing to remove this apparent paradox of a no-curl magnetic field with unclosed field lines on the one hand (Stokes) and magnetic field lines which have to close somewhere on the other hand (Maxwell)? Do we allow this like in classical optics where two parallel lines cross only at infinity? So the no-curl loops actually close at infinity?
Thanks
A potential magnetic field has no curl. According to the "curl theorem" or stokes theorem, a vector field with no curl does not close. Yet, Maxwell's equation tell us we shall not have magnetic monopoles, so the loops have to close... ? What am I missing to remove this apparent paradox of a no-curl magnetic field with unclosed field lines on the one hand (Stokes) and magnetic field lines which have to close somewhere on the other hand (Maxwell)? Do we allow this like in classical optics where two parallel lines cross only at infinity? So the no-curl loops actually close at infinity?
Thanks