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- Feb 7, 2012

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Yes. More precisely, it means that for each $x$ (in some specified domain) $|f_n(x) - f(x)| \to0$ as $n\to\infty$.Does pointwise convergence mean that |$f_{n}$-$f$|->0 for each x?

- Feb 13, 2012

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Wellcome back to MHB Fermat!... yes, pointwise convergence to f(x) means that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} |f_{n} (x) - f(x)| = 0$ for any x in the domain...Does pointwise convergence mean that |$f_{n}$-$f$|->0 for each x?

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$\chi$ $\sigma$