Particle in an infinite square well - interval -d/2<x<d/2

In summary, the homework statement states that a particle is in an infinite square well of width ##L## on an interval ##-L/2<x<L/2##. The wavefunction which describes the state of this particle is of form: $$\psi = A_0\psi_0(x) + A_1\psi_1(x)$$ where ##A_1=1/2## and where ##\psi_0## and ##\psi_1## are ground and first excited state. What are ##\psi_0## and ##\psi_1## like?
  • #1
71GA
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Homework Statement


Particle is in an infinite square well of width ##L## on an interval ##-L/2<x<L/2##. The wavefunction which describes the state of this particle is of form:
$$\psi = A_0\psi_0(x) + A_1\psi_1(x)$$
where ##A_1=1/2## and where ##\psi_0## and ##\psi_1## are ground and first excited state. What are ##\psi_0## and ##\psi_1## like? Write them down. Calculate ##A_0##.

Homework Equations


I allways used this equation to get normalisation factors:
$$\int\limits_{-d/2}^{d/2} \psi =1$$
If i recall corectly the eigenfunctions are orthogonal? I remember something about this and i think there is different way too solve this problem using this orthogonality. Please someone show me, because i am interested in both ways!

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that normalisation factor should be ##A_0=\sqrt{3}/2## but what i got was totaly different. I think i chose ##\psi_0## and ##\psi_1## wrong. Here is how i got the wrong result:
http://shrani.si/?f/OH/aKLhcp9/582013-01837.jpg

Is it possible that I should use ##\psi_0(x) = \cos \left(\frac{(2N-1)\pi}{d}x\right)## where ##\boxed{N=1}## and ##\psi_1(x) = \sin \left(\frac{2N\pi}{d}x\right)## where ##\boxed{N=1}##?
 
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  • #2
You're correct that your initial eigenfunctions are wrong, but your suggested corrections are not quite right either (but really close! :) ). [itex]N[/itex] labels the energy states, so that the ground state is [itex]N=1[/itex] and the first excited state is [itex]N=2[/itex].

Using that in your new eigenfunctions should result in the correct answer. I didn't go in detail through your method though.

Edit: Whoops, don't forget the [itex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}[/itex] factor in those new eigenfunctions also!
 
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  • #3
Whoops, don't forget the ##\sqrt{2/L}## factor in those new eigenfunctions also!
What i thought was: "Oh! ##A_0## and ##A_1## are already there and are playing the role of ##\sqrt{2/L}##". I guess i missread the instructions...

I don,t understand the why N=2 though. If i plug in the N=1 in the equations i provided (i added factor of ##\sqrt{2/L}##) I get ##\psi_0(x) = \sqrt{2/L}\cos \left(\frac{1\pi}{d}x\right)## (this should be the ground state) and ##\psi_1(x) =\sqrt{2/L} \sin \left(\frac{2\pi}{d}x\right)## (this should be first excited state).
 
  • #4
Typically, you label the states n=1, n=2, n=3, and so on. You don't use the same n for different states. The eigenfunctions would be given by
$$\phi_n(x) = \begin{cases}
\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\cos \frac{n\pi x}{L}, & n\text{ odd} \\\\
\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin \frac{n \pi x}{L}, & n\text{ even}
\end{cases}$$ for ##-L/2 \le x \le L/2## and 0 elsewhere. Following this convention for labeling the states, the energy of each state is given succinctly by
$$E_n = \frac{\hbar^2 n^2 \pi^2}{2mL^2}.$$
 
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  • #5
If i understand your point you wanted to say that my sugestion would have worked, but is not written in accordance to convention?
 
  • #6
I was just clarifying what TheShrike meant. You can use whatever convention you want as long as it works for you.
 
  • #7
Yes i know that. But would my own convention work?
 
  • #8
It worked and i got the solution ##A_0 = \sqrt{3}/2##. Thank you all for your help.
 
  • #9
71GA said:
What i thought was: "Oh! ##A_0## and ##A_1## are already there and are playing the role of ##\sqrt{2/L}##". I guess i missread the instructions...

I don,t understand the why N=2 though. If i plug in the N=1 in the equations i provided (i added factor of ##\sqrt{2/L}##) I get ##\psi_0(x) = \sqrt{2/L}\cos \left(\frac{1\pi}{d}x\right)## (this should be the ground state) and ##\psi_1(x) =\sqrt{2/L} \sin \left(\frac{2\pi}{d}x\right)## (this should be first excited state).

Oh, I see what you were doing now. A conflict of conventions, as vela stated. My mistake.

Looks like you had the answer all along. :wink:
 
  • #10
TheShrike said:
My mistake.

Nope. The mistake is always a comunication :). If you were here and i could ask you in person we would solve the problem in first two sentances. But writing and reading is sometimes blah :). We should create some sort of a Skype Q&A site ;)
 

Related to Particle in an infinite square well - interval -d/2<x<d/2

1. What is a particle in an infinite square well?

A particle in an infinite square well is a theoretical model used in quantum mechanics to describe the behavior of a particle confined to a one-dimensional region with infinite potential walls on either side. This means that the particle is unable to escape the well and its energy levels are restricted to discrete values.

2. How is the interval [-d/2, d/2] related to the particle in an infinite square well?

The interval [-d/2, d/2] represents the width of the potential well in which the particle is confined. It is the distance from one potential wall to the other, and it determines the size of the region in which the particle can exist.

3. What is the significance of the particle's energy in an infinite square well?

The energy of a particle in an infinite square well is quantized, meaning it can only take on certain discrete values. The lowest energy state, known as the ground state, has the most probable location at the center of the well, while higher energy states have greater probabilities of being found closer to the potential walls.

4. How does the wave function of a particle in an infinite square well change with time?

The wave function of a particle in an infinite square well evolves over time according to the Schrödinger equation. The wave function oscillates between positive and negative values, representing the probability of finding the particle at a certain position in the well at a given time.

5. Can a particle in an infinite square well have a negative energy?

No, the energy of a particle in an infinite square well is always positive. This is because the potential energy within the well is defined as zero, and the particle's total energy is equal to its kinetic energy plus its potential energy. Since the potential energy is always zero, the total energy must also be positive.

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