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There may be a topic on this already (in which case I'll lock tjis topic), but did any of you watch the French Open match between Williams and Henin-Hardenne?
The crowd was really heckling Williams after Williams questioned two of the judge's calls. The predominately French crowd cheered when Williams would miss or have a serving fault. Ultimately, Williams lost and the question is whether the crowd treatment was a factor (which is no offense to Henin-Hardenne because she is a great player. Being in the French Open alone should tell something).
Initially, the French response would be considered uncalled for and against protocol but I remember reading an article a week or two before the French Open where Williams is clearly mocking the French with a mock French accent saying "We don't want to play in the war; we want to make clothes." (taken from http://espn.go.com/tennis/french03/s/2003/0605/1563841.html which also read on two separate articles that I will try to find ASAP)
So then I question "did she ask for that treatment?"
The statement obviously had political connotations, so that line between sports and politics has blurred a bit.
Do you think the French treatment of Serena Williams after her apparent mocking of the French was justified or do you think that
French had no right to act that way towards Williams?
The crowd was really heckling Williams after Williams questioned two of the judge's calls. The predominately French crowd cheered when Williams would miss or have a serving fault. Ultimately, Williams lost and the question is whether the crowd treatment was a factor (which is no offense to Henin-Hardenne because she is a great player. Being in the French Open alone should tell something).
Initially, the French response would be considered uncalled for and against protocol but I remember reading an article a week or two before the French Open where Williams is clearly mocking the French with a mock French accent saying "We don't want to play in the war; we want to make clothes." (taken from http://espn.go.com/tennis/french03/s/2003/0605/1563841.html which also read on two separate articles that I will try to find ASAP)
So then I question "did she ask for that treatment?"
The statement obviously had political connotations, so that line between sports and politics has blurred a bit.
Do you think the French treatment of Serena Williams after her apparent mocking of the French was justified or do you think that
French had no right to act that way towards Williams?
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