- #1
Red_CCF
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Hi
I was reading Introduction to Fluid Mechanics by Nakayama and Boucher and I got lost in their derivation of the Navier Stokes Theorem.
They basically started out with a differential of fluid with dimensions dx, dy, and b. Then they say that the force acting on it F = (F_x, F_y) is F_x = dx*dy*b*density*du/dt and F_y = dx*dy*b*density*dv/dt where u is the velocity in x direction and v the velocity in y direction. Then the author says that F is the "inertial force which is the mass times the acceleration".
I don't get this statement, because I thought that inertial force only existed in non-inertial frames (which they used as such in earlier chapters) and they didn't specify that they were doing the derivation in non-inertial frame (all the stuff I said above was basically the first four sentence/equations in the derivation).
If someone could help me I would really appreciate it.
Thanks
I was reading Introduction to Fluid Mechanics by Nakayama and Boucher and I got lost in their derivation of the Navier Stokes Theorem.
They basically started out with a differential of fluid with dimensions dx, dy, and b. Then they say that the force acting on it F = (F_x, F_y) is F_x = dx*dy*b*density*du/dt and F_y = dx*dy*b*density*dv/dt where u is the velocity in x direction and v the velocity in y direction. Then the author says that F is the "inertial force which is the mass times the acceleration".
I don't get this statement, because I thought that inertial force only existed in non-inertial frames (which they used as such in earlier chapters) and they didn't specify that they were doing the derivation in non-inertial frame (all the stuff I said above was basically the first four sentence/equations in the derivation).
If someone could help me I would really appreciate it.
Thanks