- Thread starter
- #1

#### DeusAbscondus

##### Active member

- Jun 30, 2012

- 176

when I differentiate:

$$ln4x+sin(x)$$

I get:

$$\frac{1}{x}+cos(x)$$

and Wolfgram agrees

But then when i test this by calculating indefinite integral, I get:

$$ln(x)+cos(x)$$

Which leaves me with three questions:

1. what happened to the 4?

2. why isn't it integrating back to (at least) ln(x)+sin(x)?

3. why doesn't wolfram add $+C$ to the end of an indefinite integral,

seemingly defying a principle over which I've had my knuckles wrapped severely (and liked it) ?

Thanks,

Deus Abscondus or:

"God has absconded from the scene .... again!"

$$ln4x+sin(x)$$

I get:

$$\frac{1}{x}+cos(x)$$

and Wolfgram agrees

But then when i test this by calculating indefinite integral, I get:

$$ln(x)+cos(x)$$

Which leaves me with three questions:

1. what happened to the 4?

2. why isn't it integrating back to (at least) ln(x)+sin(x)?

3. why doesn't wolfram add $+C$ to the end of an indefinite integral,

seemingly defying a principle over which I've had my knuckles wrapped severely (and liked it) ?

Thanks,

Deus Abscondus or:

"God has absconded from the scene .... again!"

Last edited: