- #1
Frank Castle
- 580
- 23
Why is it that introducing a hard cut-off ##p^{2}=\Lambda^{2}## breaks Lorentz invariance? Is it simply that it introduces an energy scale and energy is not a Lorentz invariant quantity?
Sorry if this is a trivial question, but I just want to make sure I understand the reasoning as I've heard/read it being stated, but never fully appreciated why.
Sorry if this is a trivial question, but I just want to make sure I understand the reasoning as I've heard/read it being stated, but never fully appreciated why.
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