- #1
Sekonda
- 207
- 0
Hello,
My question is on coupling the photons to our Dirac field for electrons, we have the Dirac equation:
[tex](i\not{\partial -m })\psi=0[/tex]
By Lorentz invariance we can change our space-time measure by:
[tex]\partial ^\mu \rightarrow \partial ^\mu+ieA^\mu\equiv D^\mu[/tex]
Though I cannot see why Lorentz invariance implies that this change is invariant?
Sorry if I haven't explained my issue well, any help appreciated!
SK
My question is on coupling the photons to our Dirac field for electrons, we have the Dirac equation:
[tex](i\not{\partial -m })\psi=0[/tex]
By Lorentz invariance we can change our space-time measure by:
[tex]\partial ^\mu \rightarrow \partial ^\mu+ieA^\mu\equiv D^\mu[/tex]
Though I cannot see why Lorentz invariance implies that this change is invariant?
Sorry if I haven't explained my issue well, any help appreciated!
SK