- #1
jostpuur
- 2,116
- 19
This is still not clear to me. Here's the conjecture:
Assume that [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is such function that it is differentiable at all points of its domain, and that
[tex]
\int\limits_{[a,b]}|f'(x)|dm(x) < \infty
[/tex]
holds, where the integral is the ordinary Lebesgue integral. Then also
[tex]
\int\limits_{[a,b]}f'(x)dm(x) = f(b)-f(a)
[/tex]
holds.
True or not? I don't know a proof, and I don't know a counter example.
Assume that [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is such function that it is differentiable at all points of its domain, and that
[tex]
\int\limits_{[a,b]}|f'(x)|dm(x) < \infty
[/tex]
holds, where the integral is the ordinary Lebesgue integral. Then also
[tex]
\int\limits_{[a,b]}f'(x)dm(x) = f(b)-f(a)
[/tex]
holds.
True or not? I don't know a proof, and I don't know a counter example.