- #1
murshid_islam
- 457
- 19
hi,
i have started "self-studying" number theory. and since i am quite new to number theory and modular arithmetic, i need some help.
how can i prove that if a2 ≡ 0 (mod n), then a ≡ 0 (mod n).
thanks in advance to anybody who can help.
i have started "self-studying" number theory. and since i am quite new to number theory and modular arithmetic, i need some help.
how can i prove that if a2 ≡ 0 (mod n), then a ≡ 0 (mod n).
thanks in advance to anybody who can help.
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