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- Feb 7, 2012

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Here is a link to the question:Prove that if $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = p$ then $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}(a_1+a_2+\ldots +a_n)/n = p$.

Prove this limit.

I have posted a link there to this topic so the OP can find my response.