- #1
Just some guy
- 69
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Hi all,
I'm trying to follow somebody's derivation for why the existence of magnetic monopoles would demand electric charge was quantised (from http://forum.physorg.com/quantization-of-electric-charge_385.html . However I'm having problems with one of their steps.
Halfway through it gets to the action of the electron being equal to e multiplied by the integral of the langrangian * the magnetic vector potential. But then it says that this is equal to e multiplied by the integral of the magnetic vector potential across the boundary of the circle encompassing the Dirac string. How does this follow?
Cheers,
Just some guy
I'm trying to follow somebody's derivation for why the existence of magnetic monopoles would demand electric charge was quantised (from http://forum.physorg.com/quantization-of-electric-charge_385.html . However I'm having problems with one of their steps.
Halfway through it gets to the action of the electron being equal to e multiplied by the integral of the langrangian * the magnetic vector potential. But then it says that this is equal to e multiplied by the integral of the magnetic vector potential across the boundary of the circle encompassing the Dirac string. How does this follow?
Cheers,
Just some guy
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