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According to Larmor's theorem, the magnetic field seen by a rotating frame is changed. In a frame that rotates at the Larmor frequency, the magnetic field appears nonexistent.
In the treatment of thomas precession, the magnetic field in the instantaneous resting frame (which is rotating to an observer in the laboratory frame) is as if the frame is not rotating. Why?
In the treatment of thomas precession, the magnetic field in the instantaneous resting frame (which is rotating to an observer in the laboratory frame) is as if the frame is not rotating. Why?