- #1
maxverywell
- 197
- 2
Hi.
My question is how the Lorentz magnetic force [itex]F=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}[/itex] is derived? Is it due to magnetic moment of charged particles? If the moving charged particle does not have magnetic moment (due to spin, so the torque on the particle is zero) how the magnetic force changes its direction of motion? The potential energy of that particle is changing too? If so, than the work is done
on that particle?
My question is how the Lorentz magnetic force [itex]F=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}[/itex] is derived? Is it due to magnetic moment of charged particles? If the moving charged particle does not have magnetic moment (due to spin, so the torque on the particle is zero) how the magnetic force changes its direction of motion? The potential energy of that particle is changing too? If so, than the work is done
on that particle?
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