Is Dirac Delta a Function or a Distribution?

In summary: Dirac delta function is zero everywhere except at the origin, so the area under the curve should be one. However, because the width of the curve is zero, the height of the curve is infinite.
  • #1
ShayanJ
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In texts about dirac delta,you often can find sentences like "The delta function is sometimes thought of as an infinitely high, infinitely thin spike at the origin".
If we take into account the important property of dirac delta:
[itex] \int_\mathbb{R} \delta(x) dx=1 [/itex]
and the fact that it is zero everywhere except at the origin,it seems that we can have an explanation for the quoted sentence.It can be said that the area under the curve of dirac delta should be one but it's width is zero so its height should be infinite.
Everything seems to work out well until it is said that,rigorously,dirac delta isn't a function because no function which is zero everywhere except at one point,can have non-zero definite integral .

But the explanation I gave for the dirac delta being infinite at origin,can be applied to a function like f(x) defined as [itex] f(0)=\infty \ \mbox{and} \ f(x \neq 0)=0 [/itex]

The definite integral of f(x) can be thought of as the area of a rectangle having zero width
and infinite height so having a finite and possibly non-zero area.

So it seems that's not a good reason for telling that dirac delta isn't a function.
I'll appreciate any idea.
 
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  • #2
Yes, you can define a function that way. This function would be "extended real-valued" instead of "real-valued", but that's not a problem. The problem is that the standard definition of the integral assigns the value 0 to this function, not 1.
 
  • #3
What you mean by the standard definition of the integral?
Is it the limit of the Riemann sum?
You mean by doing that sum and taking the limit,the integral of f(x) comes out to be zero?
 
  • #4
I'm referring to the Lebesgue definition of the integral. It assigns the same value to any two functions that differ only on a set of Lebesgue measure 0. Your f differs from the constant function 0 only on the set {0}, which has Lebesgue measure 0. So the value of f at 0 is actually irrelevant to the value of the integral.
 
  • #5
A mathematically rigorous treatment of Dirac delta function requires using Schwartz's distributions.
http://www2.math.umd.edu/~trivisa/distributions.pdf
The above shows the connection.
 

Related to Is Dirac Delta a Function or a Distribution?

1. What is the Dirac delta function?

The Dirac delta function, denoted as δ(x), is a mathematical concept used in physics and engineering to represent a point mass or impulse at a specific location.

2. How is the Dirac delta function defined?

The Dirac delta function is defined as zero for all values of x except at x=0, where it is infinite. It has an area of one under the curve, and its integral is equal to one.

3. What is the purpose of the Dirac delta function?

The Dirac delta function is used to simplify calculations in physics and engineering, especially in the field of signal processing. It represents a spike or impulse at a specific location, making it easier to model and analyze certain systems.

4. Can the Dirac delta function be graphed?

No, the Dirac delta function cannot be graphed in the traditional sense because it is infinite at a single point and zero everywhere else. However, it is often represented as a spike or impulse at x=0 on a graph.

5. How is the Dirac delta function related to the Kronecker delta function?

The Dirac delta function is a continuous version of the Kronecker delta function, which is discrete. Both functions are used to represent a spike or impulse at a specific location, but the Dirac delta function is used in continuous systems while the Kronecker delta function is used in discrete systems.

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