# Inverse of a function property

#### OhMyMarkov

##### Member
Hello everyone!

I have three questions:

(1) If $x\in R$, is it true that $f ^{-1} (f(x)) = x$?
(2) If $y\in R$, is it true that $f (f^{-1}(y)) = y$?
(3) If $B\subset R$, is it true that $f(f ^{-1} (B)$?

I think I have showed it for (3), but not sure of my proof. For (1) and (2), I considered the function $f (x) = x^2$. $f^{-1}(1)$ can be 1 and -1...

Thanks for the help!

#### Evgeny.Makarov

##### Well-known member
MHB Math Scholar
The answer may depend on what $$f$$ is and on the precise definition of $$f^{-1}$$. Also, in (3), $$f(f^{-1}(B))$$ cannot be true or false.

#### chisigma

##### Well-known member
Hello everyone!

I have three questions:

(1) If $x\in R$, is it true that $f ^{-1} (f(x)) = x$?
(2) If $y\in R$, is it true that $f (f^{-1}(y)) = y$?
(3) If $B\subset R$, is it true that $f(f ^{-1} (B)$?

I think I have showed it for (3), but not sure of my proof. For (1) and (2), I considered the function $f (x) = x^2$. $f^{-1}(1)$ can be 1 and -1...

Thanks for the help!
As in Your example, the (1) supplies one and only one x if and only if $\displaystyle f^{-1} (*)$ is a single value function...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

#### OhMyMarkov

##### Member
I've returned to although I have seen this before, and I thought I was convinced.