Infinite pulleys problem, why doesn’t this technique work?

In summary: The alternative is that we call for expert help !Hi Haruspex,This is an excellent exercise, and I would love to see someone else try to solve it.
  • #1
Hiero
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The problem statement can be seen here http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/info/exercises/infinite_pulleys.html

Since each pulley is presumably massless, it must have no net force on it and so the tension of each rope is half of the one above it. If we let T be the tension acting on m0, then the tension acting on mi will be T/2i

Thus the acceleration of mi (downward positive) is
ai = g - T/(2imi)

Now to solve the problem, I thought I had a nice idea, but it leads to a wrong answer. The idea is to let a short time dt go by, then equate the kinetic energy with the work done by gravity.

Thus we get the equation:
Σmi(aidt)2/2 = Σmigai(dt)2/2
Where the sum is over all i. From this we can solve for T.

I double checked my steps and cannot find mistakes but the answer comes out wrong, so I am asking is there any flaw in the reasoning of this approach?
 
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  • #2
Hello hero,

You overlook a trivial solution for your last equation :rolleyes:

What is the total mass hanging from the left side of the top pulley ?

[edit] wow, apparently, so am I ! there's several pages of solution pdf.

I think your problem is that gravity does more work on mi than you assume. There should be a double sum on the righthand side. And I think a sign error is lurking too.
 
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  • #3
Hi BvU, thanks for the reply
BvU said:
You overlook a trivial solution for your last equation :rolleyes:
There is a trivial static solution (all ai = 0) if we take that equation alone (not sure if that’s what you meant) but the accelerations should obey the first equation ai = g - T/(2imi)

BvU said:
What is the total mass hanging from the left side of the top pulley ?
The total mass on the left (the sum from i = 1 to infinity of mi) equals m0, but we can’t just replace that subsystem with a mass of m0. It’s not the same since the masses are able to accelerate at different rates.

BvU said:
I think your problem is that gravity does more work on mi than you assume. There should be a double sum on the righthand side. And I think a sign error is lurking too.
As for the signs, I chose ai to be positive if downwards, so positive ai corresponds to positive gravitational work.

As for the double sum, I am not seeing it. The only work done by gravity that I can see is mig(dy) = mig(ai(dt)2/2)

Can you elaborate why you think gravity does more work than this?
 
  • #4
Oh boy, I'm making a mess of this aren't I ?

However, the trivial solution
Hiero said:
accelerations should obey the first equation ai = g - T/(2imi)
is holding up: for a=0
T0 = m0g = g/(1-t) and
T1 = T0/2 has to be m1g = g
from which t = 1/2 ... phew...​

And for the rest I take it you've seen Chandra's solution. I find it ugly, because I expected something smart and elegant from Feynman. But perhaps he wanted to be ugly for once.

Hiero said:
but we can’t just replace that subsystem with a mass of m0. It’s not the same since the masses are able to accelerate at different rates.
I agree. I hope I didn't suggest that :rolleyes: but I definitely did not exclude it o:)

Your signs are clearly established; my bad o:) (2).

Double sums remark probably nonsense too since that's already in ai o:) (3)

Brings us to your approach and why it may be or not be correct
Hiero said:
Σmi(aidt)2/2 = Σmigai(dt)2/2
I recognize ##{1\over 2}mv^2 = mgh## but I don't see where it goes awry.

Hiero said:
I double checked my steps and cannot find mistakes
I believe you, but all I can think of now is to ask that you show the steps -- by now I kind of feel obliged to check.

The alternative is that we call for expert help ! @haruspex, do you like this kind of exercise ?
 
  • #5
BvU said:
from which t = 1/2 ... phew...
I didn’t think about that until now, but yes I agree t = 1/2 should give the static solution.

BvU said:
I believe you, but all I can think of now is to ask that you show the steps
Ok.
(A reminder, T0 ≡ T)
Starting from gΣmiai = Σmiai2 if we put in the ai equation then it becomes... (all sums from i = 0 to infinity)
gΣmi(g - T/(2imi)) = Σmi(g - T/(2imi))2
gΣ(mig - T/2i) = Σmi(g2 - 2gT/(2imi) + (T/(2imi))2)
The term Σmig2 cancels from both sides leaving the equation
-gTΣ1/2i = -2gTΣ1/2i + T2Σ1/(4imi)
Adding 2gTΣ1/2i to both sides (and then dividing through by T2) and noting that Σ1/2i = 2 we get the equation
2g/T = Σ1/(4imi)
Now since m0 doesn’t fit the pattern, I will separate it from the sum. So now the summation will run from i = 1 to infinity and the equation becomes
2g/T = 1/m0 + Σ1/(4imi)
2g/T = (1 - t) + Σt/(4t)i
2g/T = 1 - t + 4t2/(1 - 4t)
2g/T = ((1-t)(1-4t)+4t2) / (1 - 4t)
2g/T = (1 - 5t +8t2) / (1 - 4t)
Thus we find the tension acting on m0 to be
T = 2g(1 - 4t) / (1 - 5t +8t2)
Then we can find a0 from
a0 = g - T/m0
a0 = g - 2g(1 - t)(1 - 4t) / (1 - 5t +8t2)
a0 = g(5t - 1)/(1 - 5t +8t2)
Which is my final answer and incorrect. This is at least the third time I’ve worked through it, always getting this same answer.
(This does not give zero when t = 1/2)If you do take the time to check then thank you very much! It really bothers me that this method isn’t working ?:)
 
  • #6
One thing I did not mention though is that when t ≤ 1/4 then the sum ∑1/(4mi)i diverges and so the formula I used no longer applies. Hence our final formula should only apply to t > 1/4
 
  • #7
Hiero said:
So now the summation will run from i = 1 to infinity and the equation becomes
2g/T = 1/m0 + Σ1/(4imi)
2g/T = (1 - t) + Σt/(4t)i
2g/T = 1 - t + 4t2/(1 - 4t)
I think there's a sign error in the last line of this excerpt. It should be
2g/T = 1 - t - 4t2/(1 - 4t)

Note that the sum in the last term of the previous line is of all positive terms, so the sum must be positive. But the denominator (1 - 4t) in the last line is negative because t > 1/4.
 
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  • #8
Oh wow I finally see the error o:) I was mistakenly thinking that Σ1/(4t)i = 4t/(1-4t) (that would be Σ(4t)i) but it’s actually (1/(4t)) / (1-1/(4t)) = 1/(4t-1) isn’t it?
(Sums from one to infinity)
 
  • #9
andrewkirk said:
I think there's a sign error in the last line of this excerpt. It should be
2g/T = 1 - t - 4t2/(1 - 4t)
Don’t you think it should instead be,
2g/T = 1 - t + t/(4t - 1)
?
 
  • #10
Fixing that though, I end up with
a0 = g(2t-1)2/(6t-4t2-1)
which at least is zero when t = 1/2 but it’s still not the given answer.

I must be making another mistake, but I cannot see it cause apparently I like to repeat the same mistakes over and over o0)
 
  • #11
Hiero said:
Don’t you think it should instead be,
2g/T = 1 - t + t/(4t - 1)
?
Yes it should. I noticed the sign problem and so just re-wrote the line with the sign changed. I did not check the other details of the summation.
 
  • #12
BvU said:
@haruspex, do you like this kind of exercise ?
Yes, it's fascinating, but I'm a bit busy right now and it looks like good progress is being made.
 
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1. Why is the infinite pulleys problem considered impossible?

The infinite pulleys problem is considered impossible because it violates the laws of physics. In a system of infinite pulleys, the amount of tension required to support the weight of the object would be infinite, which is not physically possible.

2. What is the technique used in the infinite pulleys problem?

The technique used in the infinite pulleys problem is called the "pulley paradox" or "pulley principle". It involves using an infinite number of pulleys to create a mechanical advantage and lift an object with a smaller force.

3. Why doesn’t the infinite pulleys technique work?

The infinite pulleys technique does not work because it relies on the assumption that the tension in the rope remains constant, which is not true in reality. As the rope passes over each pulley, it experiences friction and the tension decreases, making it impossible to lift the object with a smaller force.

4. Can the infinite pulleys problem be solved mathematically?

No, the infinite pulleys problem cannot be solved mathematically because it involves an infinite number of pulleys, making it impossible to calculate the exact tension in the rope at each point. It also violates the laws of physics, making it an illogical problem to solve.

5. Are there any real-life applications of the infinite pulleys problem?

While the infinite pulleys problem may not have any practical applications, the concept of mechanical advantage and using pulleys to lift heavy objects is commonly used in various machines and structures, such as cranes and elevators. However, these systems are designed with a limited number of pulleys, making them physically possible and efficient to use.

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