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- #1

- Apr 14, 2013

- 4,047

I have a implicit finite difference method for the wave equation.

At step 0, we set: $W_j^0=v(x_j), j=0,...,J$

At the step 1, we set: $W_j^1=v(x_j)+Dtu(x_j)+\frac{Dt^2}{2}(\frac{v(x_{j-1})-2v(x_j)+v(x_{j+1})}{h^2}+f(x_j,0)), j=0,...,J$

Can that be that at the step 1 $j$ begins from $0$ and ends at $J$?