How to start Laplace infinite domain

In summary: B_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}\), then solve for \(A_n^{(1)}\) and \(B_n^{(1)}\) in terms of \(U_0\), \(k_1\) and \(k_2\).
  • #1
Dustinsfl
2,281
5
This problem seems a little overwhelming at the point. I am not sure on where and how to start.

Suppose that a uniform thermal gradient in the +x direction exists in a very large (i.e. effectively infinite) domain of conductivity $k_2$ such that the temperature field $u_{\infty}(r,\theta)$ can be represented by
$$
u_{\infty}(r,\theta) = Ar\cos\theta
$$
where $A$ is a constant which reflects the gradient magnitude.
Suppose that a circular region of material of radius a is removed an replaced with a new material with conductivity $k_1$.
The most general version
of this problem is when the inner and out conductivities are of unequal, but comparable, magnitudes.
In this case, the steady temperature field inside the disk and outside the disk must be solved separately to obtain the inner and outer solutions, $u_1$ and $u_2$ respectively.
The constraint on the inner solution is boundedness at the origin
$$
\lim_{r\to 0}|u_1(r,\theta)| < \infty.
$$
The outer solution must asymptotically approach the undisturbed temperature field at large distances:
$$
\lim_{r\to\infty}u_2(r,\theta)\to u_{\infty}(r,\theta).
$$
Each of these solutions will contain series coefficients that must be determined by jointly imposing continuity of temperature and heat flux at the boundary $r = a$:
\begin{alignat*}{3}
u_1(a,\theta) & = & u_1(a,\theta)\\
k_1u_{1_r}(a,\theta) & = & k_2u_{2_r}(a,\theta)
\end{alignat*}Obtain the solutions for the temperature fields $u_1$ and $u_2$ with series coefficients expressed terms of $a$, $k_1$ and $k_2$.
 
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  • #2
$$
u_1 = A_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}r^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)
$$
$$
u_2 = U_0r\cos\theta + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)
$$
The equation $Ar\cos\theta$ has been changed to $U_0r\cos\theta$ and $u_1(a,\theta) = u_2(a,\theta)$. Therefore, $A_0 = U_0a\cos\theta$. Then
$$
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0
$$
Only when $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$ <--Is this correct to do?
From this point (if it is correct), can be simplified more now? Or must I use the next condition $-k_1\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial r}(a,\theta)=-k_2\frac{\partial u_2}{\partial r}(a,\theta)$?
 
Last edited:
  • #3
dwsmith said:
$$
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0
$$
Only when $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$ <--Is this correct to do?

Hi dwsmith, :)

When $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$ we have,

\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0\]

But we cannot say that the above sum is equal to zero only when $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$. For example another possibility that could make the sum equal to zero is,

\[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)=0\mbox{ for each }n\geq 1\]

with $a^nA_n^{(1)} \neq \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}\neq\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$.

Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.
 
  • #4
Sudharaka said:
Hi dwsmith, :)

When $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$ we have,

\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0\]

But we cannot say that the above sum is equal to zero only when $a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$. For example another possibility that could make the sum equal to zero is,

\[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)=0\mbox{ for each }n\geq 1\]

with $a^nA_n^{(1)} \neq \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}$ and $a^nB_n^{(1)}\neq\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}$.

Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.

Then how do I obtain the series coefficients in terms of $a$, $k_1$, and $k_2$?
 
  • #5
dwsmith said:
Then how do I obtain the series coefficients in terms of $a$, $k_1$, and $k_2$?

Not sure whether this is the correct approach, but I think the series coefficients can be found using the remaining boundary condition. What do you get after using that boundary condition?
 
  • #6
Sudharaka said:
Not sure whether this is the correct approach, but I think the series coefficients can be found using the remaining boundary condition. What do you get after using that boundary condition?
Using the second boundary condition, we have
\begin{alignat*}{3}
-k_1\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial r}(a,\theta) & = & - k_1\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}na^{n - 1}\left(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & -k_2U_0\cos\theta + k_2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{a^{n + 1}}\left(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & -k_2\frac{\partial u_2}{\partial r}(a,\theta).
\end{alignat*}
 
  • #7
dwsmith said:
Using the second boundary condition, we have
\begin{alignat*}{3}
-k_1\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial r}(a,\theta) & = & - k_1\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}na^{n - 1}\left(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & -k_2U_0\cos\theta + k_2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{a^{n + 1}}\left(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & -k_2\frac{\partial u_2}{\partial r}(a,\theta).
\end{alignat*}

Eliminate \(A_{n}^{(2)}\) and \(B_{n}^{(2)}\) using, \(a^nA_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}\) and \(a^nB_n^{(1)}=\frac{1}{a^n}B_n^{(2)}\).
 
  • #8
dwsmith said:
$$
u_1 = A_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}r^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)
$$
$$
u_2 = U_0r\cos\theta + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)
$$
The equation $Ar\cos\theta$ has been changed to $U_0r\cos\theta$ and $u_1(a,\theta) = u_2(a,\theta)$. Therefore, $A_0 = U_0a\cos\theta$. Then
$$
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0
$$

You have taken, \(A_{0}=U_{0}a\cos\theta\) (which is problematic because a Fourier coefficient cannot be a variable) and neglected that part altogether to obtain,

\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0\]

Is it given that, \(A_{0}=U_{0}=0\)?
 
  • #9
Sudharaka said:
Is it given that, \(A_{0}=U_{0}=0\)?

No.
 
  • #10
$$
k_2U_0\cos\theta = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[(k_1 + k_2)na^{n-1}A_n\cos n\theta + (k_1 + k_2)na^{n-1}B_n\sin n\theta\right]
$$
Now what?
So
$$
k_2U_0\cos\theta = (k_1+k_2)A\cos\theta\Rightarrow A_1^{(1)} = \frac{k_2U_0}{k_1+k_2}
$$
correct?

How do I find the other coefficients?
 
Last edited:
  • #11
dwsmith said:
No.

Then you cannot obtain,

\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0\]

in post #2. Post #3-#7 and #10 becomes irrelevant and you should try to continue from post #2. :)
 
  • #12
Sudharaka said:
Then you cannot obtain,

\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)-\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\right] = 0\]

in post #2. Post #3-#7 and #10 becomes irrelevant and you should try to continue from post #2. :)

I have tried many different methods already any better advice?
 
  • #13
So you have,

\[u_1 = A_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}r^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)\]

\[u_2 = U_0r\cos\theta + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\]

with the boundary conditions,

\[u_1(a,\theta) = u_2(a,\theta)\mbox{ and }-k_1\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial r}(a,\theta)=-k_2\frac{\partial u_2}{\partial r}(a,\theta)\]

From the first boundary condition we get,

\[A_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a^n(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta)=U_0a\cos\theta + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{a^n}(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta)\]

\[\Rightarrow A_0 -U_0a\cos\theta+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(a^n A_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{A_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}\right)\cos n\theta+ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(a^n B_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{B_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}\right)\sin n\theta=0\]

\[\Rightarrow A_0 +\left(aA_{1}^{(1)}-\frac{A_{1}^{(2)}}{a}-U_0a\right)\cos\theta+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\left(a^n A_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{A_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}\right)\cos n\theta+ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(a^n B_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{B_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}\right)\sin n\theta=0\]

This is satisfied when,

\[A_{0}=0\]

\[aA_{1}^{(1)}-\frac{A_{1}^{(2)}}{a}-U_0a=0\]

\[a^n A_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{A_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}=0\mbox{ for all }n\geq 2\]

\[a^n B_{n}^{(1)}-\frac{B_{n}^{(2)}}{a^n}=0\mbox{ for all }n\geq 1\]

Try to do the same thing for the second boundary condition and you should get three equations corresponding to the coefficients of \(\cos\theta\), \(\cos n\theta\) and \(\sin n\theta\).
 
  • #14
We have that $u_1 = A_0^{(1)} + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}r^n\left(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta\right)$ and $u_2 = u_{\infty} + u_2' = U_0r\cos\theta + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r^n}\left(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta\right)$.
Using the first boundary condition, we have
\begin{alignat*}{3}
u_1(a,\theta) & = & A_0^{(1)} + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}a^n\left(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & U_0a\cos\theta + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{a^n}\left(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & u_2(a,\theta).
\end{alignat*}
Using the second boundary condition, we have
\begin{alignat*}{3}
k_1\frac{\partial u_1}{\partial r}(a,\theta) & = & k_1\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}na^{n - 1}\left(A_n^{(1)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(1)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & k_2U_0\cos\theta - k_2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{a^{n + 1}}\left(A_n^{(2)}\cos n\theta + B_n^{(2)}\sin n\theta\right)\\
& = & k_2\frac{\partial u_2}{\partial r}(a,\theta).
\end{alignat*}
From the first boundary condition, we have
$$
\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\left(a^nA_n^{(1)} - \frac{1}{a^n}A_n^{(2)}\right) \cos n\theta = U_0a\cos\theta
$$
where $B_n = A_0^{(1)} = 0$ since there are no sine and constant terms in the equality.
That is, we have that
$$
aA_1^{(1)} - \frac{1}{a}A_1^{(2)} = U_0a\iff A_1^{(1)} = U_0 + \frac{1}{a^2}A_1^{(2)}.
$$
From the second boundary condition, we have
$$
k_1A_1^{(1)} + \frac{k_2}{a^2}A_1^{(2)} = k_2U_0.
$$
We can now plug in our $A_1^{(1)}$ term.
Then we have that $A_1^{(2)} = \frac{a^2U_0\left(1 - \frac{k_1}{k_2}\right)}{\frac{k_1}{k_2} + 1}$ and plugging $A_1^{(2)}$ into the other equation we have $A_1^{(1)} = U_0\left[1 + \frac{1 - \frac{k_1}{k_2}}{\frac{k_1}{k_2} + 1}\right]$
Therefore, the general solution is
$$
u(r,\theta) = u_1 + u_2 = U_0\cos\theta\left[2r + \left(r + \frac{a^2}{r}\right)\left(\frac{1 - \frac{k_1}{k_2}}{1 + \frac{k_1}{k_1}}\right)\right].
$$
 

Related to How to start Laplace infinite domain

1. How do I define the Laplace infinite domain?

The Laplace infinite domain is a mathematical concept that represents a region with no boundaries, where the values of a function are not limited by any specific range or boundary conditions. In other words, the domain extends infinitely in all directions.

2. What are the key steps to starting a Laplace infinite domain analysis?

The key steps to starting a Laplace infinite domain analysis include defining the domain, setting up the governing equations, applying appropriate boundary conditions, solving the equations, and interpreting the results. It is important to have a clear understanding of the problem and the equations involved in order to accurately define and analyze the domain.

3. How do I choose appropriate boundary conditions for a Laplace infinite domain?

Choosing appropriate boundary conditions for a Laplace infinite domain analysis depends on the specific problem being solved. Generally, boundary conditions are set based on physical or mathematical constraints, such as symmetry or known values at certain points. It is important to carefully consider the problem and choose boundary conditions that accurately represent the behavior of the system.

4. What are some common applications of Laplace infinite domain analysis?

Laplace infinite domain analysis is commonly used in various fields of science and engineering, such as fluid dynamics, heat transfer, and electromagnetics. It can be used to model and analyze problems with no boundaries, such as flow around a cylindrical object or heat transfer in a large volume. It is also useful in understanding the behavior of systems with infinite dimensions, such as an infinitely long wire.

5. Are there any limitations to using Laplace infinite domain analysis?

While Laplace infinite domain analysis can be a powerful tool for solving certain problems, it does have some limitations. It is most suitable for linear problems and may not accurately capture nonlinear behavior. It also assumes an infinite domain, which may not be realistic for all situations. Additionally, the results obtained from a Laplace infinite domain analysis should always be carefully interpreted and validated with other methods or experimental data.

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