How to prove such value for a derivative?

In summary: I see, thank you!In summary, using the mean value theorem and the intermediate value theorem, it can be proved that if f is a differentiable function on R such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 3, and f(3) = 3, then there exists a point c between 1 and 3 such that f'(c) = 0.5. This is done by considering the function g(x) = f(x) - 0.5x and using the intermediate value theorem and Rolle's theorem to show that g'(c) = 0 for some c between 1 and 3.
  • #1
FallArk
127
0
Prove that if f is a differentiable function on R such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 3, f(3) = 3. There is a c \(\displaystyle \in\) (1 , 3) such that f'(c) = 0.5

I think the mean value theorem should be used, but I can't figure out how to prove such value exists
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
There are two things you need, both of which depend on the "mean value theorem". First, directly from the mean value theorem, since the slope of the straight line from (1, 1) to (2, 3) is 1, there exist a value, a, between 1 and 2, such that f'(a)= 1 and, since the slope of the straight line from (2, 3) to (3, 3) is 0, there exist a point, b, between 2 and 3, such that f'(b)= 0.

Now, one can prove, using the mean value theorem, that, although f' is not necessarily continuous, it does have the "intermediate value property" (so f' is a "Darboux function": http://www.math.wvu.edu/~kcies/teach/Fall03Spr04/451NadlerText/451Nadler101-120.pdf) that between a and b, f' takes on all value between f'(a) and f'(b). Here, f' takes on all values between 0 and 1 so there exist c, between a and b and so between 0 and 3, such that f'(c)= 1/2.
 
  • #3
HallsofIvy said:
There are two things you need, both of which depend on the "mean value theorem". First, directly from the mean value theorem, since the slope of the straight line from (1, 1) to (2, 3) is 1, there exist a value, a, between 1 and 2, such that f'(a)= 1 and, since the slope of the straight line from (2, 3) to (3, 3) is 0, there exist a point, b, between 2 and 3, such that f'(b)= 0.

Now, one can prove, using the mean value theorem, that, although f' is not necessarily continuous, it does have the "intermediate value property" (so f' is a "Darboux function": http://www.math.wvu.edu/~kcies/teach/Fall03Spr04/451NadlerText/451Nadler101-120.pdf) that between a and b, f' takes on all value between f'(a) and f'(b). Here, f' takes on all values between 0 and 1 so there exist c, between a and b and so between 0 and 3, such that f'(c)= 1/2.

One more question, we did not learn that property in class. Is it possible to prove that f' is a continuous function? so I can use the intermediate value theorem to say that f'(c) = 1/2 exists
 
  • #4
No, because for general f, f' is not necessarily continuous! (I said that in my original post). An example is [tex]f(x)= \frac{sin(x)}{x^2}[/tex] if x is not 0, 0 if x is 0.
For x not 0, the derivative is [tex]f'(x)= \frac{x^2 cos(x)- 2x sin(x)}{x^4}= \frac{x cos(x)- 2 sin(x)}{x^3}[/tex] if x is not 0, and 0 at 0. Thus f'(x) exists for all x but since the limit of f'(x) as x goes to 0 is not 0, f'(x) is not continuous at x= 0.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #5
FallArk said:
Prove that if f is a differentiable function on R such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 3, f(3) = 3. There is a c \(\displaystyle \in\) (1 , 3) such that f'(c) = 0.5

I think the mean value theorem should be used, but I can't figure out how to prove such value exists
Let $g(x) = f(x) - 0.5x$. Can you use the given information (together with the intermediate value theorem and Rolle's theorem) to show that $g'(c) = 0$ for some point $c\in (1,3)$? It will then follow that $f'(c) = 0.5.$
 
  • #6
Opalg said:
Let $g(x) = f(x) - 0.5x$. Can you use the given information (together with the intermediate value theorem and Rolle's theorem) to show that $g'(c) = 0$ for some point $c\in (1,3)$? It will then follow that $f'(c) = 0.5.$

I don't think Rolle's theorem would work though, then g(1) would need to be equal to g(3), but they are not...

- - - Updated - - -

HallsofIvy said:
No, because for general f, f' is not necessarily continuous! (I said that in my original post). An example is [tex]f(x)= \frac{sin(x)}{x^2}[/tex] if x is not 0, 0 if x is 0.
For x not 0, the derivative is [tex]f'(x)= \frac{x^2 cos(x)- 2x sin(x)}{x^4}= \frac{x cos(x)- 2 sin(x)}{x^3}
if x is not 0, and 0 at 0. Thus f'(x) exists for all x but since the limit of f'(x) as x goes to 0 is not 0, f'(x) is not continuous at x= 0.[/QUOTE]

I know it does not need to continuous, so is it okay to simply state that still by MVT, f'(c)= 1/2 exists? I'm asking because our textbook did not mention any of that
 
  • #7
FallArk said:
I don't think Rolle's theorem would work though, then g(1) would need to be equal to g(3), but they are not...
That's where the intermediate value theorem comes in. Use it to show that there is a point $d$ between $1$ and $2$ at which $g(d) = g(3)$. Then you can use Rolle's theorem on the interval $[d,3].$
 
Last edited:
  • #8
Opalg said:
That's where the intermediate value theorem comes in. Use it to show that there is a point $d$ between $1$ and $2$ at which $g(d) = g(3)$. Then you can use Rolle's theorem on the interval $[d,3].$

I don't think it is possible, because IVT requires that for some d (in this case 3) between g(a) and g(b), there is a point c where g(c) = d. but the function g(x) gives the value of 1/2 and 2 on [1,2]
Did I miss something? Maybe it could work and I forgot something important
 
  • #9
FallArk said:
I don't think it is possible, because IVT requires that for some d (in this case 3) between g(a) and g(b), there is a point c where g(c) = d. but the function g(x) gives the value of 1/2 and 2 on [1,2]
Did I miss something? Maybe it could work and I forgot something important
Since $g(x) = f(x) - \frac12x$, it follows that $g(1) = \frac12$, $g(2) = 2$ and $g(3) = \frac32$. But $\frac12<\frac32<2$, so by the intermediate value theorem for $g(x)$ on the interval $[1,2]$, there exists $d\in [1,2]$ such that $g(d) = \frac32$. Thus $g(d) = g(3) = \frac32$ and now you can apply Rolle's theorem to $g(x)$ on the interval $[d,3]$ to deduce that there exists $c\in[d,3]$ such that $g'(c) = 0.$
 
  • #10
Opalg said:
Since $g(x) = f(x) - \frac12x$, it follows that $g(1) = \frac12$, $g(2) = 2$ and $g(3) = \frac32$. But $\frac12<\frac32<2$, so by the intermediate value theorem for $g(x)$ on the interval $[1,2]$, there exists $d\in [1,2]$ such that $g(d) = \frac32$. Thus $g(d) = g(3) = \frac32$ and now you can apply Rolle's theorem to $g(x)$ on the interval $[d,3]$ to deduce that there exists $c\in[d,3]$ such that $g'(c) = 0.$

Duh... Of course! How did I forget! Thank you!
 

Related to How to prove such value for a derivative?

What is a derivative?

A derivative is a mathematical concept that represents the rate of change of a function at a specific point. It measures how much a function changes as its input changes.

Why is it important to prove the value of a derivative?

Proving the value of a derivative is important because it allows us to understand the behavior of a function and make accurate predictions about its future values. It also helps us to solve complex mathematical problems and make informed decisions in various fields such as economics, physics, and engineering.

How do you prove the value of a derivative?

The most common method to prove the value of a derivative is through the use of the limit definition of a derivative. This involves taking the limit of a function as the change in its input approaches zero. Other methods include using differentiation rules, such as the power rule or chain rule, and using graphical representations of a function.

What is the relationship between a function and its derivative?

A function and its derivative are closely related, as the derivative represents the instantaneous rate of change of the function. In other words, the derivative tells us how much the output of a function changes for a small change in its input. It is also important to note that the derivative of a function is also a function itself.

Can you prove the value of a derivative for any function?

Not all functions have a well-defined derivative. Some functions, such as discontinuous or non-differentiable functions, do not have a derivative at certain points. In these cases, it is not possible to prove the value of the derivative. However, for most continuous and differentiable functions, it is possible to prove the value of the derivative using various mathematical techniques.

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
453
Replies
4
Views
442
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
4
Views
361
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
5
Views
831
Replies
4
Views
382
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
14
Views
966
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
8
Views
1K
Replies
11
Views
951
Back
Top