How can we compute averages over infinite sets of functions?

In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of averaging over all functions in a given region, which is larger than 2^{\aleph_0}. However, defining an average in this context is not straightforward and some people use the term "average" to mean different things, such as expectation or mean value. It is also noted that technically, the set of all functions does not exist. Some suggest that the answer could be f(x) = 0 due to symmetry, but others argue that there is no clear answer without further consideration of the problem.
  • #1
cragar
2,552
3
The set of all functions is larger than [itex] 2^{\aleph_0} [/itex].
So let's say I wanted to average over all functions over some given region. that was
larger than [itex] 2^{\aleph_0} [/itex] how would I do that.
 
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  • #2
Define what you mean by "average". The word is pretty much useless in mathematics.
 
  • #3
add them all up and then divide by the total number.
 
  • #4
cragar said:
add them all up and then divide by the total number.

That doesn't define a particular mathematical procedure unless you can define "add" and "divide" in your context.

The problem of defining an "average" of all the real numbers seems conceptually simpler and I don't know of any useful definition for such an average.

Some people use the term "average" to mean "expectation". If you have a particular probability distribution on the set of all real numbers, the "expectation" of that distribution is defined. Some people use the term "average" to mean the "mean value" of a finite sample of data or the "expectation" of a probability distribution.
 
  • #5
Technically the set of all functions does not exist. It is to big to be a set.

If you mean real valued functions, while the above post is completely correct, I think the answer you want is f(x) = 0. If you sum every function, I believe you will get 0 because for every f(x) there exists g(x) = -f(x)
 
  • #6
Dmobb Jr. said:
,I think the answer you want is f(x) = 0. If you sum every function, I believe you will get 0 because for every f(x) there exists g(x) = -f(x)

I don't think symmetry directs us to a particular answer. For every function h(x) = there is a function g(x) = 5 - h(x) so by the same reasoning, the answer would be the function f(x) = 5.
 
  • #7
Stephen Tashi said:
I don't think symmetry directs us to a particular answer. For every function h(x) = there is a function g(x) = 5 - h(x) so by the same reasoning, the answer would be the function f(x) = 5.

Good point. I am pretty sure 0 is still going to be the best answer but I have to consider the problem more thoroughly.

Edit: The answer will probably be 0 assuming there is some sort of reasonable answer at all.
 

Related to How can we compute averages over infinite sets of functions?

What is the concept of "Averages over infinite sets"?

The concept of "Averages over infinite sets" refers to the mathematical calculation of the average value of a variable within an infinite set of data points. It is a statistical method used to represent the central tendency of a continuous data set.

How is the average over an infinite set calculated?

The average over an infinite set is calculated by adding all the values in the set and dividing the sum by the total number of values in the set. This is also known as the arithmetic mean and is represented by the symbol "μ".

Why is it important to consider averages over infinite sets?

Averages over infinite sets are important because they provide a more accurate representation of the data compared to averages calculated from a finite set. This is because an infinite set takes into account all possible values, resulting in a more precise measure of central tendency.

What are some real-world applications of averages over infinite sets?

Averages over infinite sets have various real-world applications, such as in finance for calculating the average return on investment, in physics for determining the average energy of a system, and in probability theory for estimating the expected outcome of an event.

Are there any limitations to using averages over infinite sets?

Yes, there are limitations to using averages over infinite sets. One limitation is that it assumes a normal distribution of data, which may not always be the case in real-world scenarios. Additionally, it can be affected by outliers, skewing the average value. It is important to consider the context and characteristics of the data before using averages over infinite sets.

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