- #1
eljose
- 492
- 0
My question is...could the Hilbert-Polya conjecture if true prove RH (Riemann Hypothesis) i mean let,s suppose we find an operator ( i found a Hamiltonian with a real potential that gave all the roots of [tex] \zeta(1/2+is) [/tex] ) in the form:
[tex] R=1/2+iH [/tex] with H self-adjoint so all the "eigenvalues" of R are precisely the roots of the Riemann zeta function... would if mean that Rh is true?..what would happened if we find another operator
[tex] R^{a}=a+iT [/tex] with T also self-adjoint and a different from 1/2 [/tex] ? or perhaps not so worse, an operator but this time T ISN,T self-adjoint so we are granted that all its eigenvalues wont, be real but...what would happen if T in spite of not being self-adjoint had a real root?..then the Riemann zeta function would have a real root in the form a+it with a and t real and a different from 1/2
so in what sense is the Hilbert-Polya hypothesis true and is the same as RH?..
[tex] R=1/2+iH [/tex] with H self-adjoint so all the "eigenvalues" of R are precisely the roots of the Riemann zeta function... would if mean that Rh is true?..what would happened if we find another operator
[tex] R^{a}=a+iT [/tex] with T also self-adjoint and a different from 1/2 [/tex] ? or perhaps not so worse, an operator but this time T ISN,T self-adjoint so we are granted that all its eigenvalues wont, be real but...what would happen if T in spite of not being self-adjoint had a real root?..then the Riemann zeta function would have a real root in the form a+it with a and t real and a different from 1/2
so in what sense is the Hilbert-Polya hypothesis true and is the same as RH?..