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trap101
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This is more a conceptual question. So i am doing some self review of multi variate calculus and i am looking at functinal relations of the form F(x, y, z,...) = 0
In the book they talk about implicit differentiation. Now i fully understand how to do the mechanics of it, but i was trying to understand why we need implicit differentiation? I get the fact that we may not be able to solve for all our functions in an explicit form say y = g(x, z,w,...)
But when they state something along the lines of we can use the chain rule to compute the partials of g in terms of F where
F(x, y, z,...g(x, y, z))
And the partials would .be of the form dg/dxj = -djF/d(n+1)F
What is the objective of this expression?
Convuluted i know, if clarification is needed please ask. Thanks for help
In the book they talk about implicit differentiation. Now i fully understand how to do the mechanics of it, but i was trying to understand why we need implicit differentiation? I get the fact that we may not be able to solve for all our functions in an explicit form say y = g(x, z,w,...)
But when they state something along the lines of we can use the chain rule to compute the partials of g in terms of F where
F(x, y, z,...g(x, y, z))
And the partials would .be of the form dg/dxj = -djF/d(n+1)F
What is the objective of this expression?
Convuluted i know, if clarification is needed please ask. Thanks for help