Dec 17, 2012 Thread starter #1 D dwsmith Well-known member Feb 1, 2012 1,673 $$ u_y(x,\pi) = \frac{x}{\pi} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}nB_n\sin xn\cosh\pi n = 0. $$ How can I solve for $A_n$ here?
$$ u_y(x,\pi) = \frac{x}{\pi} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}nB_n\sin xn\cosh\pi n = 0. $$ How can I solve for $A_n$ here?
Dec 17, 2012 #2 Sudharaka Well-known member MHB Math Helper Feb 5, 2012 1,621 dwsmith said: $$ u_y(x,\pi) = \frac{x}{\pi} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}nB_n\sin xn\cosh\pi n = 0. $$ How can I solve for $A_n$ here? Click to expand... Hi dwsmith, You you mean \(B_n\) ? There is no \(A_n\) in the equation. Kind Regards, Sudharaka.
dwsmith said: $$ u_y(x,\pi) = \frac{x}{\pi} + \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}nB_n\sin xn\cosh\pi n = 0. $$ How can I solve for $A_n$ here? Click to expand... Hi dwsmith, You you mean \(B_n\) ? There is no \(A_n\) in the equation. Kind Regards, Sudharaka.