For finite dimension vector spaces, all norms are equivalent

In summary: However, there can still be quantitative differences between them, as shown in the example of ##||(v_1,v_2)||_2## and ##||(v_1,v_2)||_\infty##. So while they may behave the same in terms of convergence and boundedness, they may still produce different numbers for the norm of a given vector. In summary, the existence of a bound between two norms, as described in the conversation, implies that the two norms are equivalent in terms of convergence and boundedness, but there may still be quantitative differences between them.
  • #1
ShayanJ
Insights Author
Gold Member
2,810
604
I searched for a proof of the statement in the title and found this document. But it just proves that for two norms ## \rho(x) ## and ## ||x|| ##, we have ## m\rho(x)\leq ||x|| \leq M \rho(x) ## for some m and M. But how does it imply that the two norms are equivalent?

Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
What do you mean by equivalence of norms? ##mρ(x)≤||x||≤Mρ(x)## implies ##M^{-1} ||x|| \leq ρ(x) \leq m^{-1} ||x||##.
 
  • #3
I assume it means all of them give the same number for the same vector.
 
  • #4
Shayan.J said:
But how does it imply that the two norms are equivalent?

I notice the current Wikipedia article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norm_(mathematics) simply defines "equivalent" to mean the existence of that bound.

To me, it would be nicer to define "equivalent" to mean something like "A sequence converges in one of the norms if and only if it converges in the other norm. It that an obvious consequence of the bound ?
 
  • Like
Likes ShayanJ
  • #5
Shayan.J said:
I assume it means all of them give the same number for the same vector.
This cannot be since e.g. ##||(v_1,v_2)||_2 = \sqrt{v_1^2+v_2^2} \neq \max\{|v_1|,|v_2|\} = ||(v_1,v_2)||_\infty##.
It only means the two (four) relations above, i.e. it is qualitatively the same, not quantitatively.
 
  • #6
Stephen Tashi said:
It that an obvious consequence of the bound ?
Yeah, It makes sense to me.
But isn't there a standard definition of equivalent norms?
fresh_42 said:
It only means the two (four) relations above, i.e. it is qualitative the same, not quantitative.
What do you mean by qualitatively the same?
 
  • #7
Shayan.J said:
What do you mean by qualitatively the same?
What Stephen has said. Switching between equivalent norms doesn't change the general behavior of convergence, boundedness and so on, it only changes numbers: the quantity, not the quality.
 
  • Like
Likes ShayanJ
  • #8
Stephen Tashi said:
I notice the current Wikipedia article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norm_(mathematics) simply defines "equivalent" to mean the existence of that bound.
Indeed. Two norms are equivalent if, by definition, the estimate given in the OP holds.

As you can easily show, this implies that for every ##x \in X## every open ##\rho##-ball centered at ##x## contains an open ##\|\cdot\|##-ball centered at ##x## and vice versa. Since these balls form bases for the norm topologies generated by ##\rho## and ##\|\cdot\|##, respectively, we conclude that the two norm topologies are identical.

In this sense equivalent norms are "qualitatively the same".
 

Related to For finite dimension vector spaces, all norms are equivalent

1. What does it mean for a norm to be "equivalent"?

When we say that two norms are equivalent, it means that they are essentially the same in terms of measuring the magnitude of a vector. More specifically, if two norms are equivalent, it means that there exists a constant value that can be multiplied to one norm to obtain the other. This constant is usually denoted as "C".

2. How do we prove that all norms are equivalent for finite dimension vector spaces?

In order to prove that all norms are equivalent for finite dimension vector spaces, we need to show that for any two norms we choose, there exists a constant "C" that satisfies the definition of equivalence. This can be done by using mathematical techniques such as the triangle inequality and the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

3. Why is it important to know that all norms are equivalent for finite dimension vector spaces?

Knowing that all norms are equivalent for finite dimension vector spaces is important because it allows us to use any norm we want when working with these types of vector spaces. This gives us more flexibility and can simplify calculations and proofs.

4. Are there any exceptions to the rule that all norms are equivalent for finite dimension vector spaces?

No, there are no exceptions to this rule. This statement holds true for all finite dimension vector spaces, regardless of the specific norm being used.

5. How does the concept of equivalent norms relate to the concept of isomorphism?

The concept of equivalent norms is closely related to the concept of isomorphism. In fact, two finite dimension vector spaces are isomorphic if and only if they have equivalent norms. This means that they have the same structure and properties, just with different representations in terms of the chosen basis and norm.

Similar threads

  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
4
Views
941
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
18
Views
399
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
6
Views
939
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
19
Views
386
Replies
1
Views
589
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
3
Views
358
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
10
Views
1K
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
11
Views
1K
Back
Top