Final Velocity of Mass on Frictionless Incline

In summary, a spring with a spring-constant of 3.6 N/cm is compressed 39 cm and released, causing a 9 kg mass to skid down a frictional incline of height 36 cm and inclined at a 20 degree angle. The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s^2 and the path is frictionless except for a distance of 0.6 m along the incline with a coefficient of friction of 0.4. The final velocity of the mass can be found using the equation v^2 = vo^2 + 2a(X - Xo), where a is equal to 0.156 m/s^2. However, there may be a mistake in the
  • #1
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1.
A spring with a spring-constant 3.6 N/cm is compressed 39 cm and released. The 9 kg mass skids down the frictional incline of height 36 cm and inclined at a 20◦ angle. The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s^2. The path is frictionless except for a distance of 0.6 m along the incline which has a coefficient of friction of 0.4 .

What is the final velocity of the mass?

2. RELEVANT EQUATIONS
Ko+Uo+Wnc=U+K
kinematic equations
ma=kx

3. MY ATTEMPT
I tried kx=ma-->
(3.6)(.39)=(9)a
a=.156
I put that into the kinematic equation v^2 = vo^2 + 2a(X - Xo)
v^2=(0)^2+2(.156)(.39)
got v=.3488266045 m/s (note: this would be vo for the overall equation and v only for the compression of the spring)

I put that into Ko in the Ko+Uo+Wnc=U+K equation-->
.5(9)(.3488266045)^2+(9)(9.8)(.36)+[(.4)(9*9.8*cos20)](.6)(cos20)=0+.5(9)v^2
solved for v and got 3.366216946 m/s but that isn't right...I think there is something wrong with the nonconservative work, but I'm not sure what...
 
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  • #2


I'm wondering about the 39 cm where the spring pushes the block. Is that 39 cm part of the incline? If so, it makes your kx=ma calc incorrect because a component of mg will also be acting. Might be easier to just include a 1/2kx^2 term in your conservation of energy equation.

Also, the cos(20) on the end of the friction term seems odd to me. What is it for?
 
  • #3


Yes that would make a lot more sense to just use Uspring+Ugravitational+Wnc=K. I didn't/don't know how to solve for Wnc, so I just used Ffriction*r*costheta, which brought me to the cos20...
 
  • #4


It says "distance of 6 cm along the incline" so it is just Ff*.06 with no cos(20). Keep in mind the faint possibility that it runs out of energy somewhere in the friction stretch.
 

Related to Final Velocity of Mass on Frictionless Incline

1. What is the formula for calculating the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline?

The formula for calculating the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline is v = √(2gh), where v is the final velocity, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the incline.

2. How does the angle of the incline affect the final velocity of a mass?

The angle of the incline does not affect the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline. As long as there is no friction, the final velocity will remain the same regardless of the angle of the incline.

3. Is the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline affected by the mass of the object?

No, the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline is not affected by the mass of the object. The only factors that affect the final velocity are the acceleration due to gravity and the height of the incline.

4. Can the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline ever be negative?

Yes, the final velocity of a mass on a frictionless incline can be negative if the object is traveling in the opposite direction of the incline. This would occur if the object is initially moving in the opposite direction or if it reaches the top of the incline and starts moving back down.

5. How does the presence of friction affect the final velocity of a mass on an incline?

If there is friction present, the final velocity of a mass on an incline will be lower than the calculated value from the frictionless equation. This is because friction acts as a resistant force, slowing down the object as it moves down the incline.

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