- #1
anis91
- 5
- 0
hey guys this day my friend showed me a falacy that stunned my mind, it was like this:
let's say we add powers of 2 til the infinity,
so 1+2+4+8+16+32...
we don't know the answer, right? but we know we can multiply the whole thing by one, so
1*(1+2+4+8+16+32...) = 1*1+1*2+1*4... same thing
now, we know that 1 = 2-1,
so
1*(1+2+4+8+16+32...) = (2-1)*(1+2+4+8+16+32...)
1+2+4+8+16+32... = 2+4+8+16+32+64... -1-2-4-8-16-32
almost every numbers and it's negative counterpart cancel each other
so
1+2+4+8+16+32... = [STRIKE]2+4+8+16+32+64[/STRIKE]...-1[STRIKE]-2-4-8-16-32[/STRIKE]
so
1+2+4+8+16+32...= -1
i want a convincing reason why this is false, a very convincing one (e.g.: not logic)
let's say we add powers of 2 til the infinity,
so 1+2+4+8+16+32...
we don't know the answer, right? but we know we can multiply the whole thing by one, so
1*(1+2+4+8+16+32...) = 1*1+1*2+1*4... same thing
now, we know that 1 = 2-1,
so
1*(1+2+4+8+16+32...) = (2-1)*(1+2+4+8+16+32...)
1+2+4+8+16+32... = 2+4+8+16+32+64... -1-2-4-8-16-32
almost every numbers and it's negative counterpart cancel each other
so
1+2+4+8+16+32... = [STRIKE]2+4+8+16+32+64[/STRIKE]...-1[STRIKE]-2-4-8-16-32[/STRIKE]
so
1+2+4+8+16+32...= -1
i want a convincing reason why this is false, a very convincing one (e.g.: not logic)