- #1
snoopies622
- 846
- 28
So if angular momentum
[itex]
L = m r^2 \dot {\theta}
[/itex]
and we take the first time derivative
[itex]
\frac {d}{dt} L = 2mr \dot {r} \dot {\theta} + m r^2 \ddot {\theta}
[/itex]
the first term looks similar to the Coriolis force [itex] 2m( \bf {v} x \bf { \dot {\theta} } ) [/itex]
but I can't figure out why. Of course they both have to do with rotation so I'm guessing that it's not a coincidence, but I can't quite arrive at the exact mathematical connection between the two expressions.
Would anyone like to help me out?
[itex]
L = m r^2 \dot {\theta}
[/itex]
and we take the first time derivative
[itex]
\frac {d}{dt} L = 2mr \dot {r} \dot {\theta} + m r^2 \ddot {\theta}
[/itex]
the first term looks similar to the Coriolis force [itex] 2m( \bf {v} x \bf { \dot {\theta} } ) [/itex]
but I can't figure out why. Of course they both have to do with rotation so I'm guessing that it's not a coincidence, but I can't quite arrive at the exact mathematical connection between the two expressions.
Would anyone like to help me out?