- #1
KyleStreet
- 10
- 0
Hi, I was told by a physics tutor that if you do the following you will result in pi with a complementary between the heaviest quarks and leptons in forms of spin 0 and 1. So I copied what she was saying:
((Top Quark mass/Tau mass)/(Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)) /
((Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)/(Up Quark mass/Electron mass)) = pi
I verified that the division part was equal to 3.13 etc but not 3.14 etc, so that part is wrong.
What did she mean by quark-lepton complementary and why should the spin be 0 and 1? I wonder if the statement she made is even valid.
((Top Quark mass/Tau mass)/(Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)) /
((Charm Quark mass/Muon mass)/(Up Quark mass/Electron mass)) = pi
I verified that the division part was equal to 3.13 etc but not 3.14 etc, so that part is wrong.
What did she mean by quark-lepton complementary and why should the spin be 0 and 1? I wonder if the statement she made is even valid.