- #1
jackychenp
- 28
- 0
From dirac, if A=B, then [itex] \frac{A}{x}=\frac{B}{x}+c\delta(x)[/itex] (1) How this formula is derived?
Since [itex]\frac{dlnx}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}-i\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
We can get [itex]\frac{A}{x} = A\frac{dlnx}{dx}+Ai\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
[itex]\frac{B}{x} = B\frac{dlnx}{dx}+Bi\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
So if A=B, [itex] \frac{A}{x}=\frac{B}{x}.[/itex]
Another argument is if we integrate the equation (1) from -a to a, a->[itex]\infty[/itex] and assume in a small region [itex][-\varepsilon, \varepsilon ][/itex], [itex]\int_{-\varepsilon}^{\varepsilon}\frac{1}{x}dx=0,[/itex] so we can get [itex] \int_{-a}^{a}\frac{1}{x}dx=0, but \int_{-a}^{a}c\delta(x)dx=c,[/itex] so the left side of equation (1) doesn't equal to the right side. Please correct me if I am wrong!
Since [itex]\frac{dlnx}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}-i\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
We can get [itex]\frac{A}{x} = A\frac{dlnx}{dx}+Ai\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
[itex]\frac{B}{x} = B\frac{dlnx}{dx}+Bi\pi\delta(x)[/itex]
So if A=B, [itex] \frac{A}{x}=\frac{B}{x}.[/itex]
Another argument is if we integrate the equation (1) from -a to a, a->[itex]\infty[/itex] and assume in a small region [itex][-\varepsilon, \varepsilon ][/itex], [itex]\int_{-\varepsilon}^{\varepsilon}\frac{1}{x}dx=0,[/itex] so we can get [itex] \int_{-a}^{a}\frac{1}{x}dx=0, but \int_{-a}^{a}c\delta(x)dx=c,[/itex] so the left side of equation (1) doesn't equal to the right side. Please correct me if I am wrong!