- #1
Silversonic
- 130
- 1
Homework Statement
This is an issue I'm having with understanding a section of maths rather than a coursework question. I have a stage of the density function on the full phase space ρ(p,x);
[itex] ρ(p,x) = \frac {1}{\Omega(E)} \delta (\epsilon(p,x) - E) [/itex]
where [itex]\epsilon(p,x)[/itex] is the Hamiltonian.
Then the logarithm of that is taken to obtain;
[itex] ln(ρ(p,x)) = -ln(\Omega (E)) + ln(\delta (\epsilon(p,x) - E)) [/itex]
And then both sides are multiplied by ρ(p,x) and integrated over the phase space
[itex] ∫ρ(p,x)ln(ρ(p,x))dpdx = -ln(\Omega (E))∫ρ(p,x)dpdx + ln(\delta (\epsilon(p,x) - E))∫ρ(p,x)dpdx [/itex]
The term ∫ρ(p,x)dpdx equals one clearly, and the term on the LHS stays as it is. And [itex] ln(\Omega (E)) = S [/itex] (omitting the Boltzmann constant for the moment [S = S/k]).
However my textbook completely negates the [itex] ln(\delta (\epsilon(p,x) - E))[/itex] term, the dirac delta function. As if it goes to zero. Leaving us with;
[itex] S = -∫ρ(p,x)ln(ρ(p,x))dpdx [/itex]
Why can we do this? Why is that term equal to zero? I understand the function of the dirac delta function, δ(x) is zero anywhere else except x = 0, where it is equal to infinity. The intergal of the dirac delta function over all space is equal to one. So why then does [itex] ln(\delta (\epsilon(p,x) - E))[/itex] equal zero? That makes little sense to me, where [itex]\epsilon(p,x)[/itex] is not equal to zero, then we're logging the number zero, and when it's equal to E, we're logging infinity. Neither case makes much sense, so why can we omit it/ say it is equal to zero?