- #1
Ed Quanta
- 297
- 0
How do you prove that the lim n->infinity (n-1/n)=1?
I know that the definition of convergence for a sequence xn is for all E>0, there exists an N is an element of the set of a natural numbers and there exists a n>=N, such that lxn-Ll<E.
Is it sufficient to just show that 1 is the least upper bound, and that
1- (n-1/n) <E and thus 1-E<(n-1/n) and then n-nE<n-1 and ultimately there is an n such that n-nE+1<n
I know that the definition of convergence for a sequence xn is for all E>0, there exists an N is an element of the set of a natural numbers and there exists a n>=N, such that lxn-Ll<E.
Is it sufficient to just show that 1 is the least upper bound, and that
1- (n-1/n) <E and thus 1-E<(n-1/n) and then n-nE<n-1 and ultimately there is an n such that n-nE+1<n