- #1
leafjerky
- 43
- 7
Hey guys and gals, I'm taking an online physics course just to kind of learn the basics before I take the real thing this summer. The course is from OpenYale for those interested (oyc.yale.edu). Anyways, the professor was talking about some formulas for finding ##\vec{r}(t) = r(i(cos\omega t) + j(sin\omega t))##. He then goes on to say that ##\vec{v}(t) = \vec{r}'(t)##. So then ##\vec{v}(t) = r(i(-\omega sin\omega t) + j(\omega cos\omega t)).## I understand it all up to this point. He then loses me when he says that ##\vec{a} = \vec{v}'(t)## which he says is equal to ##-\omega ^2 \vec{r}##. Can someone walk me through how he came up with this? Sorry if the title is off as I didn't really know how to word this. Thanks