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- #1

- Feb 5, 2012

- 1,621

Trying hard to do a problem recently, I encountered the following question. Hope you can shed some light on it.

Suppose we have a continuous mapping between two metric spaces; \(f:\, X\rightarrow Y\). Let \(A\) be a subspace of \(X\). Is it true that,

\[f(A')=[f(A)]'\]

where \(A'\) is the set of limit points of \(A\) and \([f(A)]'\) is the set of limit points of \(f(A)\).