- #1
AxiomOfChoice
- 533
- 1
Just began a serious study of the Fourier transform with a couple of books. One of them defines the Fourier transform on [itex]\mathbb R[/itex] as
[tex]
\hat f(\xi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) e^{-i\xi x}dx.
[/tex]
Another defines it as
[tex]
\hat f(\xi) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) e^{-2\pi i \xi x} dx.
[/tex]
A few questions:
(1) Are these definitions somehow equivalent? I cannot seem to obtain the second from the first by making a simple change of variables.
(2) Why worry about the factors of [itex]2\pi[/itex] in the definitions? What does that do for us? Why not leave those out altogether?
[tex]
\hat f(\xi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) e^{-i\xi x}dx.
[/tex]
Another defines it as
[tex]
\hat f(\xi) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) e^{-2\pi i \xi x} dx.
[/tex]
A few questions:
(1) Are these definitions somehow equivalent? I cannot seem to obtain the second from the first by making a simple change of variables.
(2) Why worry about the factors of [itex]2\pi[/itex] in the definitions? What does that do for us? Why not leave those out altogether?